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Which one of the following clinical features denotes cardiac disease grade III?
- A. Patient is comfortable even at rest
- B. Patient is asymptomatic initially
- C. Marked limitation of physical activity
- D. Absolute limitation of physical activity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Marked limitation of physical activity. In cardiac disease grading, grade III signifies marked limitation of physical activity. This indicates that the patient experiences symptoms with less than ordinary physical activity, such as shortness of breath or chest pain. This grade reflects significant impairment in daily activities due to cardiac issues.
A: Patient is comfortable even at rest - This describes grade I, where patients are comfortable at rest.
B: Patient is asymptomatic initially - This describes pre-symptomatic stages before any limitations in physical activity.
D: Absolute limitation of physical activity - This is more severe and indicative of grade IV, where any physical activity causes discomfort or symptoms.
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Which one of the following is a characteristic of fetal post-maturity syndrome?
- A. Closed eyes, unusually alert
- B. Long, frail finger nails
- C. Wrinkled, peeling skin
- D. Excess vernix caseosa
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Wrinkled, peeling skin. Post-maturity syndrome occurs when a pregnancy extends beyond 42 weeks, causing the baby to lose the protective layer of vernix caseosa, leading to dry, peeling skin. Closed eyes and being unusually alert (A) are not specific to post-maturity syndrome. Long, frail fingernails (B) are not a typical characteristic of post-maturity. Excess vernix caseosa (D) is actually a characteristic of a premature baby, not a post-mature one.
Complications of uterine rupture:
- A. Hemorrhage, uterine atony, infection, peritonitis
- B. Preterm labor, cord prolapse, uterine prolapse
- C. Fetal distress, placental abruption, uterine rupture
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because uterine rupture can lead to severe complications such as hemorrhage from blood vessels tearing, uterine atony causing failure of the uterus to contract, infection due to exposure of internal tissues, and peritonitis from inflammation of the abdominal lining. Choices B and C are incorrect as they list complications that are not directly associated with uterine rupture. Preterm labor, cord prolapse, uterine prolapse, fetal distress, placental abruption are potential consequences of other obstetric complications but not specifically uterine rupture. Therefore, choice A is the most appropriate answer given the context of uterine rupture.
A general principle in surgical oncology is that the best approach to curative surgery in a fixed tumor requires
- A. En bloc resection
- B. Adjuvant therapies
- C. Neoadjuvant therapies
- D. Elective lymph node dissection NURS 6560 Final Exam with Verified Answers 2024
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Adjuvant therapies. Adjuvant therapies are additional treatments given after the primary treatment, usually surgery, to reduce the risk of cancer recurrence. In the context of fixed tumors, adjuvant therapies can help target any remaining cancer cells that may not have been completely removed during surgery, thus improving the chances of a successful outcome. En bloc resection (A) is important for complete tumor removal but may not always be feasible in fixed tumors. Neoadjuvant therapies (C) are given before surgery and are not typically used for fixed tumors. Elective lymph node dissection (D) may be necessary in some cases but is not the best approach for curative surgery in fixed tumors.
Fetal indications for cesarean section include
- A. Impacted face presentation, shoulder presentation, locked twins.
- B. Impacted face presentation, severe pre-eclampsia, locked twins.
- C. Cephalo-pelvic disproportion, shoulder presentation, locked twins.
- D. Cephalo-pelvic disproportion, impacted face presentation, locked twins.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because fetal indications for cesarean section typically involve situations where the baby cannot safely be delivered vaginally. Cephalo-pelvic disproportion means the baby's head is too large to pass through the mother's pelvis, necessitating a C-section. Impacted face presentation can result in difficulty during delivery, also requiring a C-section. Locked twins refer to a situation where the babies are unable to move past each other during delivery, further indicating the need for a C-section. Choices A, B, and C include some relevant indications for a C-section, but they do not encompass the full range of fetal indications like choice D does.
A characteristic of monozygotic twins is that
- A. They are always of the same sex
- B. They share a similar fingerprint pattern
- C. They have different blood groups
- D. Superfetation is a common finding
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: They are always of the same sex. This is because monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, develop from a single fertilized egg that splits into two embryos. As a result, they share the same genetic material and are always of the same sex.
Choice B is incorrect because fingerprint patterns are not determined by genetics and can vary even between identical twins. Choice C is incorrect because monozygotic twins share the same blood type since they have the same genetic makeup. Choice D is incorrect as superfetation, the occurrence of multiple pregnancies in the same uterus but from different ovulations, is extremely rare and not a common finding in monozygotic twins.