Nokea
Which one of the following clinical features indicates neonatal intracranial injury?
- A. An oedematous swelling on the newborn’s scalp that resolves in 48 hours
- B. Notable bleeding between the epicranial aponeurosis & the periosteum
- C. Evidence of excessive molding or abnormal stretching of the fetal head
- D. Peripheral cyanosis as noted by the midwife on the neonate’s peripheries
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for choice C:
1. Excessive molding or abnormal stretching of the fetal head can indicate neonatal intracranial injury due to the trauma during birth.
2. This feature suggests possible compression or trauma to the baby's head during delivery.
3. It may lead to intracranial hemorrhage or other injuries, requiring close monitoring and medical intervention.
Summary of other choices:
A. An oedematous swelling resolving in 48 hours is likely a normal finding (cephalohematoma) and not specific to intracranial injury.
B. Notable bleeding between the epicranial aponeurosis & periosteum may indicate cephalohematoma or caput succedaneum, not necessarily intracranial injury.
D. Peripheral cyanosis is related to oxygenation and circulation, not specific to intracranial injury.
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Diagnosis of obstructed labour (Abdominal examination):
- A. Palpation of the abdomen
- B. Tenderness in the lower abdomen
- C. Softening of the cervix
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Palpation of the abdomen. To diagnose obstructed labor, palpation of the abdomen is essential to assess the position and size of the fetus, as well as the presence of uterine contractions and fetal heart rate. Tenderness in the lower abdomen may indicate other conditions, not necessarily obstructed labor. Softening of the cervix is a sign of impending labor but not specific to obstructed labor. Therefore, palpation of the abdomen is the most appropriate choice for diagnosing obstructed labor.
Hypoplastic left heart syndrome is characterized by underdevelopment of
- A. Pulmonary veins, ventricles and aortic valve
- B. Left ventricle, atrium and pulmonary vessels
- C. Aortic arch, venacava and right atrium
- D. Left ventricle, aortic valve and arch
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome involves underdevelopment of the left ventricle, aortic valve, and aortic arch.
2. The left ventricle is essential for pumping oxygenated blood to the body.
3. Aortic valve controls blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta.
4. Aortic arch connects the ascending and descending aorta.
Summary:
A - Incorrect, as it includes pulmonary veins not related to hypoplastic left heart syndrome.
B - Incorrect, as it includes structures not primarily affected in this condition.
C - Incorrect, as it does not involve structures related to the left side of the heart.
Psychosis during puerperium mostly manifests as
- A. Mania
- B. Bipolar
- C. Depression
- D. Infection
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Depression. Psychosis during puerperium commonly manifests as postpartum depression, characterized by feelings of extreme sadness, anxiety, and fatigue. This is due to hormonal changes and stress associated with childbirth. Mania (choice A) and bipolar disorder (choice B) are less common during this period. Infection (choice D) is not a typical manifestation of psychosis during puerperium. Overall, postpartum depression is the most prevalent and well-documented form of psychosis in the postpartum period.
The progression of coronary artery plaque formation can lead to a variety of pathologic conditions. When subtotal plaque disruption occurs resulting in vasoconstriction, platelet activation, and embolization, it most commonly causes which clinical phenomenon?
- A. Endothelial cell dysfunction
- B. Prinzmetal’s angina
- C. Transmural myocardial infarction
- D. Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Transmural myocardial infarction. Subtotal plaque disruption leads to vasoconstriction, platelet activation, and embolization, causing complete occlusion of a coronary artery. This results in ischemia of the entire thickness of the myocardial wall, leading to transmural myocardial infarction. Endothelial cell dysfunction (A) is an early event in atherosclerosis but does not directly result from subtotal plaque disruption. Prinzmetal's angina (B) is caused by transient coronary artery spasm rather than plaque disruption. Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (D) involves incomplete blockage of a coronary artery and typically does not result from subtotal plaque disruption.
The AGACNP knows that treatment for this likely will include
- A. Observation
- B. Hyperextension casting
- C. Jewett brace
- D. Surgical intervention
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperextension casting. The AGACNP knows that this treatment is appropriate for a condition that requires immobilization and support while allowing controlled movement. Hyperextension casting provides stability and support while promoting healing. Observation (A) would not provide adequate treatment for a condition requiring immobilization. Jewett brace (C) is typically used for spinal fractures, not for conditions that require hyperextension casting. Surgical intervention (D) would be considered if conservative measures like casting have failed.