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Which one of the following signs is indicative of possible shoulder dystocia during delivery?
- A. Failure of internal rotation of the head
- B. Fetal head retracts against the perineum
- C. Gentle traction aids in effecting the delivery
- D. The occiput slowly restitutes towards the left side
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fetal head retracts against the perineum. This sign indicates possible shoulder dystocia as it suggests the baby's shoulders are impacted and unable to pass through the birth canal. The retraction of the fetal head against the perineum is a classic sign of shoulder dystocia, which requires specific maneuvers to dislodge the shoulders and facilitate delivery.
A: Failure of internal rotation of the head is not specific to shoulder dystocia.
C: Gentle traction should not be applied in cases of shoulder dystocia as it can worsen the situation.
D: The occiput restituting towards the left side is not a sign of shoulder dystocia, as it refers to the rotation of the fetal head during delivery.
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A maternal associated risk of prolonged pregnancy includes
- A. Intra-uterine oligohydramnios
- B. Placental insufficiency
- C. Fetal post-maturity syndrome
- D. Large for gestational age baby
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Placental insufficiency. Prolonged pregnancy can lead to decreased placental function, resulting in inadequate oxygen and nutrients for the fetus. This can lead to complications such as intra-uterine growth restriction and fetal distress. Option A (Intra-uterine oligohydramnios) is a consequence of decreased amniotic fluid levels but not directly associated with prolonged pregnancy. Option C (Fetal post-maturity syndrome) refers to the complications seen in a post-term newborn, not maternal risks. Option D (Large for gestational age baby) is a consequence of prolonged pregnancy but does not directly impact maternal health.
A general principle in surgical oncology is that the best approach to curative surgery in a fixed tumor requires
- A. En bloc resection
- B. Adjuvant therapies
- C. Neoadjuvant therapies
- D. Elective lymph node dissection NURS 6560 Final Exam with Verified Answers 2024
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Adjuvant therapies. Adjuvant therapies are additional treatments given after the primary treatment, usually surgery, to reduce the risk of cancer recurrence. In the context of fixed tumors, adjuvant therapies can help target any remaining cancer cells that may not have been completely removed during surgery, thus improving the chances of a successful outcome. En bloc resection (A) is important for complete tumor removal but may not always be feasible in fixed tumors. Neoadjuvant therapies (C) are given before surgery and are not typically used for fixed tumors. Elective lymph node dissection (D) may be necessary in some cases but is not the best approach for curative surgery in fixed tumors.
Three (3) types of breech presentation:
- A. Frank breech, complete breech, footling breech
- B. Head-down, bottom-down, transverse
- C. Breech, vertex, and compound
- D. Frank, compound, and transverse
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Frank breech, complete breech, footling breech. In a frank breech presentation, the baby's buttocks are aimed at the birth canal with legs flexed at the hips and extended at the knees. In a complete breech presentation, the baby's buttocks are aimed at the birth canal with legs flexed at the hips and knees. In a footling breech presentation, one or both of the baby's feet are positioned to come out first. These are the three main types of breech presentations. Choices B, C, and D do not accurately describe the different types of breech presentations, making them incorrect.
Precipitate labour is an unusually rapid labour
- A. That is concluded in less than three hours
- B. Where the external cervical os fails to dilate despite good uterine contractions
- C. That is concluded in more than three hours
- D. Where the external cervical os fails to dilate due to poor uterine contractions.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Precipitate labor is defined as unusually rapid labor.
2. Option A states that it is concluded in less than three hours, aligning with the definition.
3. Option B talks about cervical dilation, which is not a defining factor of precipitate labor.
4. Option C contradicts the definition as it mentions a duration longer than three hours.
5. Option D mentions poor uterine contractions, which are not characteristic of precipitate labor.
Summary:
Option A is correct because it aligns with the definition of precipitate labor being rapid, while the other options are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the characteristics of precipitate labor.
A characteristic of monozygotic twins is that
- A. They are always of the same sex
- B. They share a similar fingerprint pattern
- C. They have different blood groups
- D. Superfetation is a common finding
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, develop from a single fertilized egg and share the same genetic material. This results in them always being of the same sex. Choice B is incorrect because fingerprint patterns are not solely determined by genetics. Choice C is incorrect because monozygotic twins will have the same blood group since they share the same DNA. Choice D is incorrect because superfetation, the fertilization of multiple eggs at different times during the same pregnancy, is not common in monozygotic twins.