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Which outcome is realistic for a client with stage 1 Alzheimer's disease?
- A. Appropriate long-term placement will be arranged to maintain caregiver's health and well-being.
- B. The client will maintain the highest possible functional level within his or her capacity.
- C. All day-to-day decisions will be made by the caregiver to relieve client of stress.
- D. The client will remain fully functional physically, since Alzheimer's affects only the brain.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because in stage 1 Alzheimer's, individuals can still maintain a relatively high level of functionality. This is because in the early stages, the cognitive decline is mild and individuals can still perform daily tasks independently. It is important to focus on maximizing the client's functional abilities through cognitive exercises and support services.
Choice A is incorrect because long-term placement may not be necessary in stage 1 and should only be considered if the caregiver's health is at risk. Choice C is incorrect because individuals with Alzheimer's should be encouraged to make decisions to maintain their sense of autonomy. Choice D is incorrect because Alzheimer's is a progressive disease that affects both cognitive and physical functions over time.
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A woman became severely depressed when the last of her six children moved out of the home 4 months ago. Since then she has neglected to care for herself, sleeps poorly, lost weight, and repeatedly states, "No one cares about me anymore. I'm worthless." After hospitalization, the nursing diagnosis of situational low self-esteem related to feelings of abandonment was identified. The nurse wishes to reinforce the patient's self-esteem by acknowledging the improvement in her personal appearance. She's wearing a new dress and has combed her hair. The most appropriate remark would be:
- A. You look very nice this morning, Mrs. J.
- B. I like the dress you're wearing, it's very pretty.
- C. What brought about this glamorous transformation?
- D. You've combed your hair and are wearing a new dress.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it directly compliments Mrs. J's personal appearance, reinforcing her self-esteem. By stating "You look very nice this morning, Mrs. J," the nurse acknowledges and validates Mrs. J's efforts to improve her appearance, which can help boost her self-esteem.
Choice B focuses solely on the dress, not directly addressing Mrs. J's overall appearance. Choice C may come across as insincere or too focused on the transformation rather than Mrs. J herself. Choice D, while acknowledging the hair and dress, lacks the personal and direct compliment needed to reinforce self-esteem effectively.
In summary, choice A is the best option as it provides a genuine and direct compliment that can positively impact Mrs. J's self-esteem.
A patient with bipolar disorder is hyperactive and has not slept for 3 days. Mood and behavior are labile. The patient threatens to hit another patient. Which response by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. Stop that now. No one did anything to provoke an attack by you.
- B. If you try that again, you will be placed in seclusion immediately.
- C. Do not hit anyone. If you are unable to control yourself, we will help you.
- D. You know we will not let you hit anyone. Why do you continue this behavior?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it acknowledges the patient's struggle to control their behavior and offers support. It emphasizes the importance of not hitting anyone while also reassuring the patient that help is available if needed. This response promotes a therapeutic environment by setting clear boundaries and offering assistance rather than using threats or aggression.
Choice A is incorrect as it may escalate the situation by using a confrontational tone, potentially provoking further aggression. Choice B is also incorrect as it threatens the patient with seclusion, which can be seen as punitive and may not address the underlying issues causing the behavior. Choice D is incorrect as it does not provide a clear directive to prevent violence and instead questions the patient's behavior without offering immediate support.
A patient with schizophrenia has received typical (first-generation) antipsychotics for a year. His hallucinations are less intrusive, but he remains apathetic, has poverty of thought, cannot work, and is socially isolated. To address these symptoms, the nurse might consult the prescribing health care provider to suggest a change to:
- A. Haloperidol (Haldol).
- B. Olanzapine (Zyprexa).
- C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
- D. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine).
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Olanzapine (Zyprexa). Olanzapine is an atypical (second-generation) antipsychotic that has been shown to effectively target negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as apathy, poverty of thought, and social isolation. It also helps with mood stabilization and cognitive function, which can improve the patient's ability to work and engage in social interactions.
Choice A: Haloperidol (Haldol) is a typical (first-generation) antipsychotic like the current medication, which is less effective in treating negative symptoms and can potentially worsen them.
Choice C: Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is an antihistamine and not indicated for treating schizophrenia symptoms.
Choice D: Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is another typical (first-generation) antipsychotic, similar to the current medication, and may not adequately address the negative symptoms the patient is experiencing.
Several clients are members of a therapy group for clients with eating disorders. Of what particular use is this type of group therapy for treatment of eating disorders?
- A. Spending time in a group setting helps the client focus on things other than food.
- B. Interacting with clients who have similar problems helps prevent secondary gains related to being different.
- C. Focusing on problems experienced by other group members helps the client avoid having to deal with personal concerns.
- D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because interacting with clients who have similar problems in a therapy group for eating disorders helps prevent secondary gains related to feeling different or unique in their struggles. This interaction can offer a sense of validation, support, and understanding, which can be crucial for individuals with eating disorders. It fosters a sense of belonging and reduces the feelings of isolation that often accompany these disorders.
Choice A is incorrect because the primary focus of group therapy for eating disorders is to address and work through issues related to food and body image, rather than distracting clients from these concerns.
Choice C is incorrect because the purpose of group therapy is to provide a safe space for clients to explore and address their personal concerns within a supportive group setting, not to avoid dealing with them.
Choice D is also incorrect as interacting with similar others in a therapy group has specific benefits for individuals with eating disorders.
A 79-year-old white male tells a nurse, 'I have felt very sad lately. I do not have much to live for. My family and friends are all dead, and my own health is failing.' The nurse should analyze this comment as:
- A. normal pessimism of the elderly
- B. evidence of risks for suicide
- C. a call for sympathy
- D. normal grieving
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient describes loss of significant others, economic security, and health. He describes mood alteration and voices the thought that he has little to live for. Combined with his age, sex, and single status, each is a risk factor for suicide. Elderly white males have the highest risk for completed suicide.