Nokea
Which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess?
- A. The client will void a minimum of 30 mL per hour
- B. The client will have elastic skin turgor
- C. The client will have no adventitious breath sounds
- D. The client will have a serum creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that fluid is not accumulating in the lungs, a key outcome in managing fluid volume excess. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A client with fluid volume excess may not necessarily void a minimum of 30 mL per hour, have elastic skin turgor, or have a specific serum creatinine level. The absence of adventitious breath sounds is a more direct indicator of managing fluid volume excess.
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A nurse administers albuterol to a child with asthma. For what common side effect should the nurse monitor the child?
- A. Flushing
- B. Dyspnea
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Hypotension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Tachycardia. Albuterol, a bronchodilator used to treat asthma, commonly causes tachycardia as a side effect. This occurs due to the medication's stimulatory effect on beta-2 adrenergic receptors. Flushing (Choice A) is not a common side effect of albuterol. Dyspnea (Choice B) refers to difficulty breathing, which is a symptom albuterol aims to alleviate. Hypotension (Choice D) is not typically associated with albuterol use; instead, albuterol can lead to an increase in blood pressure.
Short-bowel syndrome usually occurs when:
- A. The longitudinal muscles of the intestine contract
- B. More than 50% of the small intestine is surgically removed
- C. More than 50% of the large intestine is surgically removed
- D. Transit time is decreased due to infection or drugs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Short-bowel syndrome usually occurs when more than 50% of the small intestine is surgically removed. This condition results in malabsorption of nutrients and fluids due to the reduced length of the small intestine. Choice A is incorrect because the contraction of longitudinal muscles does not lead to short-bowel syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as short-bowel syndrome is primarily related to the small intestine, not the large intestine. Choice D is incorrect since decreased transit time due to infection or drugs is not a direct cause of short-bowel syndrome.
Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?
- A. Increasing calcium intake
- B. Increasing phosphorus intake
- C. Decreasing calcium intake
- D. Administering phosphate binders
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.
When does short-bowel syndrome usually occur?
- A. The longitudinal muscles of the intestine contract
- B. More than 50% of the small intestine is surgically removed
- C. More than 50% of the large intestine is surgically removed
- D. Transit time is decreased due to infection or drugs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Short-bowel syndrome typically occurs when more than 50% of the small intestine is surgically removed. This condition leads to malabsorption issues due to the reduced length of the intestine for absorption. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because short-bowel syndrome specifically relates to the insufficient length of the small intestine, not the contraction of longitudinal muscles, surgical removal of the large intestine, or decreased transit time due to infection or drugs.
A client is transferred from the emergency department to the locked psychiatric unit after attempting suicide by taking 200 acetaminophen (Tylenol) tablets. The client is now awake and alert but refuses to speak with the nurse. In this situation, the nurse's first priority is to:
- A. Establish a rapport to foster trust
- B. Place the client in full restraints
- C. Try to communicate with the client in writing
- D. Ensure safety by initiating suicide precautions
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse's highest priority should be to ensure the client's safety by initiating suicide precautions. Given the history of a suicide attempt by taking a large number of acetaminophen tablets, there is a high risk of further self-harm. Placing the client in full restraints without assessing the situation properly may escalate anxiety and hinder therapeutic communication. Trying to communicate with the client in writing could be an option but ensuring immediate safety takes precedence. Establishing rapport is essential for building trust and therapeutic relationship, but safety concerns must be addressed first in this critical situation.