Nokea
Which part of the brain controls breathing?
- A. Medulla
- B. Cerebrum
- C. Cerebellum
- D. Thalamus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medulla. The medulla is located in the brainstem and plays a crucial role in controlling involuntary functions like breathing. It contains the respiratory center, which regulates the rate and depth of breathing. The medulla sends signals to the diaphragm and intercostal muscles to control breathing. The cerebrum (B) is responsible for higher brain functions, not breathing control. The cerebellum (C) coordinates movement and balance, not breathing. The thalamus (D) relays sensory information to the cerebral cortex, not involved in breathing regulation.
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One of the complications of prolonged bed rest is decubitus ulcer. Which of the following can best prevent its occurrence?
- A. Massage reddened areas with lotion or oils
- B. Use special water mattress
- C. Turn frequently every 2 hours
- D. Keep skin clean and dry
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Turn frequently every 2 hours. This helps redistribute pressure, preventing constant pressure on one area and reducing the risk of developing pressure ulcers. Turning every 2 hours promotes circulation and relieves pressure points.
A: Massaging reddened areas can worsen the condition by increasing friction and pressure.
B: While a special water mattress can help in preventing pressure ulcers, turning frequently is more effective.
D: Keeping the skin clean and dry is important for overall skin health but may not directly prevent pressure ulcers.
As part of primary cancer prevention program, an oncology nurse answers questions from the public at health fair. When someone asks about the laryngeal cancer, the nurse should explain that:
- A. Laryngeal cancer is one of the most preventable types of cancer
- B. Inhaling polluted air isn’t a risk factor for laryngeal cancer
- C. Laryngeal cancer occurs primarily in women
- D. Adenocarcinoma accounts for most cases of laryngeal cancer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Laryngeal cancer is one of the most preventable types of cancer. This is because the primary risk factors for laryngeal cancer are largely related to lifestyle choices such as smoking, excessive alcohol consumption, and exposure to certain occupational hazards. By avoiding these risk factors, individuals can significantly reduce their chances of developing laryngeal cancer.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect:
B: Inhaling polluted air isn’t a risk factor for laryngeal cancer - This is incorrect as exposure to polluted air can contribute to the development of laryngeal cancer.
C: Laryngeal cancer occurs primarily in women - This is incorrect as laryngeal cancer occurs more frequently in men than in women.
D: Adenocarcinoma accounts for most cases of laryngeal cancer - This is incorrect as squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of laryngeal cancer, not adenocarcin
What is an example of a nurse modifying the care plan during the evaluation phase?
- A. Adding a new intervention to address an unmet goal.
- B. Performing routine monitoring of the client’s condition.
- C. Administering medication as prescribed by the physician.
- D. Completing discharge paperwork for the client.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because modifying the care plan during the evaluation phase involves making changes based on the client's response to interventions. By adding a new intervention to address an unmet goal, the nurse demonstrates critical thinking and adaptability in response to the client's needs. This action shows that the nurse is actively assessing and revising the care plan to ensure it is effective in meeting the client's goals.
Choice B is incorrect because routine monitoring is part of the assessment and implementation phases, not specifically related to modifying the care plan during evaluation. Choice C is incorrect as administering medication is part of the implementation phase and does not necessarily involve modifying the care plan. Choice D is also incorrect as completing discharge paperwork is typically part of the discharge planning phase, not the evaluation phase where modifications to the care plan are made based on client outcomes.
Which patient is most at risk for fluid volume overload?
- A. The 40-year-old with meningitis
- B. The 60-year-old with psoriasis
- C. The 35-year-old with kidney failure
- D. The 2-year-old with influenza
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, the 35-year-old with kidney failure. Patients with kidney failure are at high risk for fluid volume overload due to the kidneys' inability to properly regulate fluid balance. This can lead to accumulation of excess fluids in the body, causing edema, hypertension, and heart failure. In contrast, choices A, B, and D are not at as high risk for fluid volume overload as patients with kidney failure, as their conditions do not directly impact fluid regulation in the body.
An adult is on a clear liquid diet. Which food item can be offered/
- A. Milk
- B. Orange juice
- C. Jello
- D. Ice cream
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Jello. A clear liquid diet includes transparent liquids and foods that are liquid at room temperature. Jello meets this criteria as it is a clear, easily digestible food. Milk (A) is not allowed on a clear liquid diet due to its opaque nature. Orange juice (B) contains pulp and is not considered clear. Ice cream (D) is a solid food and not permitted on a clear liquid diet. Therefore, Jello is the most suitable option for someone on a clear liquid diet.