Nokea
Which position is best for the client to be in while the nurse prepares to assess breath sounds?
- A. Sitting
- B. Standing
- C. Lying on the back
- D. Lying on the side
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sitting upright allows optimal lung expansion, making it easier to assess breath sounds accurately in a client with asthma.
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The nurse is discharging the client diagnosed with bronchiolitis obliterans. Which priority intervention should the nurse include?
- A. Refer the client to the American Lung Association.
- B. Notify the physical therapy department to arrange for activity training.
- C. Arrange for oxygen therapy to be used at home.
- D. Discuss advance directives with the client.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bronchiolitis obliterans causes irreversible airway obstruction, often requiring home oxygen therapy (C) to manage hypoxemia, a priority for discharge planning. Referrals (A), physical therapy (B), and advance directives (D) are important but secondary to ensuring oxygenation.
The client is admitted to a medical unit with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which signs and symptoms should the nurse assess in the client?
- A. Pleuritic chest discomfort and anxiety.
- B. Asymmetrical chest expansion and pallor.
- C. Leukopenia and CRT <three (3) seconds.
- D. Substernal chest pain and diaphoresis.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pneumonia causes pleuritic chest pain and anxiety (A) from inflammation/hypoxia. Asymmetry (B) suggests pneumothorax, leukopenia (C) is atypical, and substernal pain (D) suggests MI.
A patient, who is receiving continuous IV Heparin for the treatment of a DVT, has an aPTT of 110 seconds. What is your next nursing action per protocol?
- A. Continue with the infusion because no change is needed based on this aPTT.
- B. Increase the drip rate per protocol because the aPTT is too low.
- C. Re-draw the aPTT STAT.
- D. Hold the infusion for 1 hour and decrease the rate per protocol because the aPTT is too high.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The aPTT is 110 seconds, which is too high. Any aPTT value greater than 80 seconds places the patient at risk for bleeding. Most Heparin protocols dictate that the nurse would hold the infusion for 1 hour and to decrease the rate of infusion. If the aPTT is less than 60 seconds, the dose would need to be increased and a bolus may be needed. aPTT values should be around 60-80 seconds to achieve a therapeutic response for Heparin.
Your patient's asthma is poorly controlled. The patient reports using their rescue inhaler 4 times a week. In addition, the patient's asthma is not responding to other treatments. The physician orders the patient to take a medication that works by blocking the role of the immunoglobulin IgE. This describes which medication below?
- A. Montelukast
- B. Omalizumab
- C. Cromolyn
- D. Salmeterol
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Omalizumab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to IgE, preventing it from triggering allergic responses in asthma.
You're teaching a group of long-term care health givers about the signs and symptoms of tuberculosis. What signs and symptoms will you include in your education?
- A. Cough for a minimum of 6 weeks
- B. Night sweats
- C. Weight gain
- D. Hemoptysis
- E. Chills
- F. Fever
- G. Chest pain
Correct Answer: B,D,E,F,G
Rationale: Tuberculosis symptoms include night sweats , hemoptysis , chills , fever , and chest pain (G). A cough typically lasts 3 weeks or more, not necessarily 6 weeks (not A). Weight loss, not weight gain , is common.