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Which preoperative nursing interventions should be included for a client who is scheduled to have an emergency cesarean birth?
- A. Monitoring O2 saturations and administering pain medications are postoperative interventions.
- B. Taking vital signs every 15 minutes is a postoperative intervention. Instructing the client regarding breathing exercises is not appropriate in a crisis situation when the client's anxiety is high, because information would probably not be retained. In an emergency, there is time only for essential interventions.
- C. Because this is an emergency, surgery must be performed quickly. Anxiety of the client and the family will be high. Inserting an indwelling catheter helps to keep the bladder empty and free from injury when the incision is made.
- D. The nurse should have assessed breath sounds upon admission. Breath sounds are important if the client is to receive general anesthesia, but the anesthesiologist will be listening to breath sounds in surgery in that case.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because in an emergency cesarean birth, surgery must be performed quickly to ensure the safety of the mother and baby. Inserting an indwelling catheter is crucial to keep the bladder empty and prevent injury during the incision. This intervention helps maintain a sterile field and reduces the risk of infection. Additionally, a full bladder can impede the progress of surgery. Monitoring O2 saturations and administering pain medications (A) are postoperative interventions and not relevant in the preoperative phase. Taking vital signs every 15 minutes (B) is more appropriate for the postoperative period. Assessing breath sounds (D) is important but typically done by the anesthesiologist during surgery. Instructing the client about breathing exercises (B) may not be effective in an emergency situation where immediate interventions are necessary.
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A nurse is caring for a child who has hemophilia. The nurse should expect abnormal results in which of the following diagnostic tests?
- A. Fibrinogen
- B. Hemoglobin level
- C. Prothrombin time (PT)
- D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). In hemophilia, there is a deficiency in specific clotting factors, leading to prolonged PTT due to impaired intrinsic pathway function. A: Fibrinogen level is normal in hemophilia as it is not affected by clotting factor deficiencies. B: Hemoglobin level is unrelated to hemophilia and reflects oxygen-carrying capacity of blood. C: Prothrombin time (PT) evaluates the extrinsic pathway, which is typically normal in hemophilia. Therefore, the abnormal result is in PTT, making it the correct choice.
A client reports awaking from sleep by contractions that are occurring every five minutes and lasting 30-40 seconds. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask to assess for true labor versus false labor?
- A. When did your contractions begin?
- B. Have you noticed any bloody show or fluid coming from your vagina?
- C. What happens to your contractions when you move about?
- D. Have you felt fetal movement over the last 24 hours?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The presence of bloody show or fluid coming from the vagina can indicate ruptured membranes, which is a sign of true labor. This is important in determining whether the client is in active labor. Asking about the presence of bloody show or fluid helps differentiate between true and false labor.
Choice A is less relevant as the timing of contractions alone does not distinguish between true and false labor. Choice C is related to assessing the effectiveness of contractions, not differentiating between true and false labor. Choice D is important for assessing fetal well-being but does not help in distinguishing between true and false labor.
A nurse is discussing the use of condoms with a female client. Which of the following statements by client represents a need for further teaching?
- A. My partner will put the condom on while his penis is erect.
- B. I will remove the condom 30 minutes after intercourse.
- C. My partner should leave an empty space at the tip.
- D. I can use spermicidal gels or creams to increase effectiveness.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because removing the condom 30 minutes after intercourse is incorrect. Condoms should be removed immediately after ejaculation to prevent leakage or spillage of semen. Leaving the condom on for too long increases the risk of pregnancy and STIs. Choice A is correct as putting the condom on while the penis is erect is the proper way to ensure it fits securely. Choice C is also correct as leaving a small space at the tip allows room for semen collection. Choice D is incorrect because spermicidal gels or creams are not recommended with condoms as they can cause irritation and may not increase effectiveness.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with the parents of an infant diagnosed with recurrent otitis media. Which of the following is appropriate teaching to include?
- A. Give the child an over-the-counter antihistamine when the symptoms begin.
- B. Hold the child in an upright position while feeding.
- C. Talk with the primary health care provider about performing a tonsillectomy.
- D. Apply a warm compress over the affected ear to provide comfort.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hold the child in an upright position while feeding. This is important because feeding the infant in an upright position can help prevent reflux of milk into the Eustachian tube, reducing the risk of otitis media. This position helps to promote proper drainage and ventilation of the middle ear, decreasing the likelihood of infection.
Incorrect answers:
A: Giving the child an over-the-counter antihistamine is not appropriate for otitis media, as it is typically caused by bacterial infection, not allergies.
C: Tonsillectomy is not a first-line treatment for otitis media. It is usually considered if the child has recurrent tonsillitis, not otitis media.
D: Applying a warm compress over the affected ear may provide comfort but does not address the underlying cause or prevention of otitis media.
Two days after delivery, a postpartum client prepares for discharge. What should the nurse teach her about lochia flow?
- A. Lochia does change color but goes from lochia rubra (bright red) on days 1-3, to lochia serosa (pinkish brown) on days 4-9, to lochia alba (creamy white) days 10-21.
- B. Numerous clots are abnormal and should be reported to the physician.
- C. Saturation of the perineal pad is considered abnormal and may indicate postpartum hemorrhage.
- D. Lochia normally lasts for about 21 days, and changes from a bright red, to pinkish brown, to creamy white.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Lochia normally lasts for about 21 days, and changes from a bright red, to pinkish brown, to creamy white. This is accurate information regarding the typical progression of lochia flow postpartum. Lochia rubra is the initial discharge, followed by lochia serosa, and finally, lochia alba. This teaching is important for the client to understand what to expect in terms of postpartum bleeding.
Choice A is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the color changes of lochia. Choice B is incorrect because the presence of numerous clots is common in the immediate postpartum period and not necessarily abnormal. Choice C is incorrect as perineal pad saturation is expected initially, and significant saturation may not always indicate hemorrhage.