Which question should the nurse ask the parents of a child suspected of having glomerulonephritis?
- A. Did your child fall off a bike onto the handlebars?
- B. Has the child had persistent nausea and vomiting?
- C. Has the child been itching or had a rash anytime in the last week?
- D. Has the child had a sore throat or a throat infection in the last few weeks?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Glomerulonephritis refers to a group of kidney disorders characterized by inflammatory injury in the glomerulus. Group A β-hemolytic streptococcal infection is a common cause of glomerulonephritis. Children with glomerulonephritis often develop symptoms after a throat infection caused by streptococcal bacteria. Therefore, asking about a sore throat or throat infection in the last few weeks is crucial to assess the possible link to glomerulonephritis. Choices A, B, and C are not directly associated with the pathophysiology of glomerulonephritis. Asking about falling off a bike, nausea and vomiting, or itching and rash do not provide relevant information for assessing glomerulonephritis in this context.
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A nurse is educating a patient about bimatoprost (Lumigan) eyedrops for the treatment of Glaucoma.
Which of the following indicates that the patient has a correct understanding of the expected outcomes
following treatment?
- A. "I should be experiencing less blurriness in my central field of vision"
- B. "This medication won't help my vision at all, but will keep it from getting worse."
- C. "My peripheral vision should be increasing back to its normal state, but will take a few weeks to do so."
- D. "This medication will help my eye restor intraocular fluid and increase intraocular pressure"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Glaucoma cannot be cured, just treated. Treatment revolves around preventing further deterioration.
The parents of a 2-year-old child who had an orchiopexy to correct cryptorchidism are provided with discharge instructions by the nurse. Which statement by the parents indicates the need for further instruction?
- A. I'll check his temperature.
- B. I'll give him medication so he'll be comfortable.
- C. I'll check his voiding to be sure there's no problem.
- D. I'll let him decide when to return to his play activities.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Cryptorchidism is a condition where one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotal sac. Orchiopexy, a surgical correction, may be required. After surgery, it is crucial to restrict vigorous activities for 2 weeks to promote healing and prevent injury. Allowing the child to decide when to return to play activities may lead to delayed healing and increased risk of injury, as 2-year-olds typically want to be active. Checking the child's temperature, administering analgesics as needed, and monitoring urine output are important postoperative care measures to ensure recovery and detect complications early. Therefore, the statement indicating the need for further instruction is the one related to letting the child decide when to resume play activities.
A 23-year-old woman is admitted to the infusion clinic after a Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation. The physician orders methylprednisolone infusions (Solu-Medrol). The nurse would expect which of the following outcomes after administration of this medication?
- A. A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements
- B. A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques
- C. A decrease in the length of the exacerbation
- D. A stabilization of mood and sleep
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Methylprednisolone infusion is the first-line treatment during an acute exacerbation of Multiple Sclerosis. It is used to decrease the length and severity of a relapse by reducing inflammation in the central nervous system. Choice A, 'A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements,' is incorrect because methylprednisolone primarily targets inflammation and does not directly address muscle spasticity. Choice B, 'A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques,' is incorrect as methylprednisolone is not used to slow the progression of the disease but rather to manage acute exacerbations. Choice D, 'A stabilization of mood and sleep,' is not an expected outcome of methylprednisolone administration for Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation as it primarily targets the inflammatory process associated with the relapse.
When assessing a patient being treated for Parkinson's Disease with classic symptoms, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?
- A. Tremors
- B. Low Urine Output
- C. Exaggerated arm movements
- D. Risk for Falls
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When assessing a patient with Parkinson's Disease, the nurse should expect to note tremors as one of the cardinal signs of the condition. The classic symptoms of Parkinson's Disease include tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia (slow movements), and postural instability. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Low urine output is not a typical assessment finding associated with Parkinson's Disease. Exaggerated arm movements are not characteristic of the usual motor symptoms seen in Parkinson's Disease. While patients with Parkinson's Disease are at an increased risk for falls due to balance and coordination issues, 'Risk for Falls' is not an assessment finding but rather a potential nursing diagnosis based on the assessment findings.
A client with Multiple Sclerosis reports a constant, burning, tingling pain in the shoulders. The nurse anticipates that the physician will order which medication for this type of pain?
- A. alprazolam (Xanax)
- B. Corticosteroid injection
- C. gabapentin (Neurontin)
- D. hydrocodone/acetaminophen (Norco)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For neuropathic pain associated with conditions like Multiple Sclerosis, medications like gabapentin, an anticonvulsant, are commonly used. Gabapentin helps in managing nerve pain by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain and nervous system. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not primarily indicated for neuropathic pain. Corticosteroid injections are more suitable for inflammatory conditions like arthritis, not for neuropathic pain. Hydrocodone/acetaminophen is an opioid combination used for moderate to severe pain, but it is not the first-line choice for neuropathic pain.
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