Nokea
A charge nurse is teaching a new staff member about factors that increase a client's risk to become violent.
Which risk factor should the nurse include as the best predictor of future violence?
- A. Previous violent behavior
- B. Low self-esteem
- C. Substance use disorder
- D. A history of depression
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Previous violent behavior. This is the best predictor of future violence because past behavior is a strong indicator of future actions. Individuals who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to exhibit violent tendencies again. Low self-esteem (B), substance use disorder (C), and a history of depression (D) can contribute to increased risk of violence, but they are not as reliable predictors as previous violent behavior. A history of violence is a key factor in assessing the potential for future violent acts.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant. Nurses'
Notes
Day 1, 0900:
Client is at 31 weeks of gestation and presents with a severe headache unrelieved by
acetaminophen. Client also reports urinary frequency and decreased fetal movement.
Client is a G3 P2 with one preterm birth.
Vital Signs Day
1, 0900:
Temperature (oral) 36.9°C (98,4° F) Heart
rate 72/min
Respiratory rate 16/min BP
162/112 mm Hg
Oxygen saturation 97% on room air
Diagnostic Results Day 1,
1000:
Appearance cloudy (clear) Color
yellow (yellow)
pH 5.9 (4.6 to 8)
Protein 3+ (negative)
Specific gravity 1.013 (1.005 to 1.03) Leukocyte esterase
negative (negative)
Nitrites negative (negative) Ketones
negative (negative) Crystals negative
(negative) Casts negative (negative)
Glucose trace (negative) WBC 5 (0
t0 4)
WBC casts none (none)
RBC 1 (less than or equal to 2) RBC
casts none (none)
The nurse is reviewing the client's medical record. Select 4 findings that indicate a potential prenatal complication.
- A. Urine protein
- B. Fetal activity
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Urine ketones
- E. Respiratory rate
- F. Report of headache
- G. Gravida/parity
Correct Answer: A,C,F,G
Rationale: The correct answers (A, C, F, G) indicate potential prenatal complications. Urine protein (A) suggests preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure (C) and proteinuria. Headaches (F) can also be a sign of preeclampsia. Gravida/parity (G) provides important obstetric history, identifying high-risk pregnancies. Fetal activity (B) and respiratory rate (E) are not specific to prenatal complications. Urine ketones (D) may indicate dehydration but not necessarily a prenatal complication.
A nurse is caring for a client who asks for information regarding organ donation.
Which statement should the nurse make?
- A. Your desire to be an organ donor must be documented in writing
- B. You have the right to change your decision about organ donation at any time.
- C. Discussing your wishes with your family can help ensure they are honored.
- D. Organ donation does not delay funeral arrangements or affect body appearance.
- E. Medical care provided before death will not be affected by your organ donor status.
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: The correct answer is E because it addresses a common misconception. Organ donor status does not affect medical care provided before death. Choice A is incorrect as organ donor consent can also be verbal. Choice B is incorrect because changing one's decision about organ donation may not always be feasible in emergency situations. Choice C is incorrect as discussing wishes with family does not guarantee they will be honored legally. Choice D is incorrect as organ donation may have some impact on funeral arrangements and body appearance.
A nurse is caring for a 9-year-old child at a clinic.
Nurses' Notes
1000:
Child has been brought to the clinic by their parent due to a report of right arm pain. The parent
states that several hours ago the child tripped and fell onto the sidewalk while playing
outside. The child states, "I was running when we were playing. and I tripped over a curb." Child
is supporting their arm across their body.
Assessment
Respirations easy and unlabored, Abdomen non-distended. Right forearm and fingers are
edematous. Ecchymotic area noted on outer aspect of the forearm. Radial pulse +2. Fingers
slightly cool to touch. Child can move fingers and reports a mild "tingling" sensation, Child
verbalizes a pain level of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10, Multiple areas of bruising are noted on lower
extremities in various stages of healing
Vital. Signs
Temperature 36.8°C (98.2° F)
Heart rate 102/min
Respiratory rate 22/min
BP 100/60 mm Hg
Oxygen saturation 98% on room air
Nurse reviews the assessment findings. Which findings require immediate follow-up?
- A. Right forearm and fingers are edematous.
- B. Ecchymotic area noted on outer aspect of the forearm.
- C. Heart rate 102/min
- D. Fingers slightly cool to touch.
- E. Child verbalizes a pain level of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
- F. Respiratory rate 22/min
Correct Answer: A,D
Rationale: Edema and coolness in the extremity suggest circulatory impairment, warranting immediate attention.
A nurse is caring for a client who is alert and oriented and is receiving continuous ECG monitoring. The cardiac rhythm strips shows a wavy baseline, no distinguishable P waves, and an increased heart rate.
The nurse should identify the cardiac rhythm as which of the following?
- A. Ventricular asystole
- B. Second-degree heart block
- C. Sinus Tachycard
- D. Atrial fibrillation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Atrial fibrillation. In atrial fibrillation, the atria quiver instead of contracting effectively, leading to an irregular and rapid heart rate. This can be identified on an ECG by the absence of distinct P waves and irregular R-R intervals. Ventricular asystole (A) is the absence of ventricular contractions, second-degree heart block (B) is characterized by intermittent conduction block between the atria and ventricles, and sinus tachycardia (C) is a regular rapid heart rate originating from the sinus node.
A nurse is performing a neurological examination on a client as part of a complete physical assessment. The nurse should identify that cranial nerve XI(11) is intact when the client performs which of the following actions?
- A. Shrugs his shoulders
- B. Smiles symmetrically
- C. Closes his eyes tightly
- D. Identifies a familiar scent
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shrugs his shoulders. Cranial nerve XI, also known as the accessory nerve, controls the movement of the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles, which are responsible for shoulder shrugging. By asking the client to shrug his shoulders, the nurse can assess the integrity of cranial nerve XI.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are associated with other cranial nerves. Smiling symmetrically is controlled by cranial nerve VII (facial nerve), closing eyes tightly is controlled by cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve), and identifying a familiar scent is related to cranial nerve I (olfactory nerve).