The nurse calculates the PaO /FiO ratio for the following values: PaO is 78 mm Hg; FiO is 2 2 2 2 6 (60%). What is the outcome and the relationship to the ARDS diagnosing criteria?
- A. 46.8; meets criteria for ARDS
- B. 130; meets criteria for ARDS
- C. 468; normal lung function
- D. Not enough data to compute the ratio
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 46.8; meets criteria for ARDS. The PaO /FiO ratio is calculated by dividing the arterial oxygen partial pressure (PaO) by the fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO). In this case, PaO is 78 mm Hg and FiO is 0.6 (60%). Therefore, the calculation would be 78/0.6 = 130. This value is less than 300, which is indicative of ARDS according to the Berlin criteria. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not align with the criteria for ARDS. Choice D is incorrect because the data provided is sufficient to compute the ratio.
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The emergency department (ED) nurse is initiating therapeutic hypothermia in a patient who has been resuscitated after a cardiac arrest. Which actions in the hypothermia protocol can be delegated to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) (select all that apply)?
- A. Continuously monitor heart rhythm.
- B. Check neurologic status every 2 hours.
- C. Place cooling blankets above and below the patient.
- D. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg per nasogastric tube.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D - Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg per nasogastric tube.
Rationale: LPNs/LVNs are trained to administer medications, including oral and nasogastric routes. Giving acetaminophen via nasogastric tube is within their scope of practice. LPNs/LVNs should have the knowledge and skills to safely administer this medication as part of the hypothermia protocol.
Summary of other choices:
A: Continuously monitor heart rhythm - This requires specialized training and skills typically within the scope of registered nurses or cardiac monitoring technicians.
B: Check neurologic status every 2 hours - Assessing neurologic status requires critical thinking and clinical judgment, which are typically responsibilities of registered nurses.
C: Place cooling blankets above and below the patient - Positioning and managing cooling devices may require specific training and should be done under the supervision of a registered nurse.
A patient who is undergoing withdrawal of mechanical ventilation appears anxious and agitated. The patient is on a continuous morphine infusion and has an additional order for lorazepam 1 to 2 mg IV as needed (prn). The patient has received no lorazepam during this course of illness. What is the most appropriate nursing intearbvirbe.ncotmio/tnes tt o control agitation?
- A. Administer fentanyl (Duragesic) 25 mg IV bolus.
- B. Administer midazolam 2 mg IV now.
- C. Increase the rate of the morphine infusion by 50%.
- D. Request an order for a paralytic agent.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B is correct:
1. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine used for sedation and anxiolysis.
2. It acts quickly and has a short duration of action, suitable for acute agitation.
3. Lorazepam (also a benzodiazepine) is in the same drug class, ensuring compatibility.
4. Lorazepam is specifically ordered for this patient, indicating its appropriateness.
5. Administering midazolam addresses the patient's agitation efficiently and safely.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Fentanyl is an opioid analgesic, not ideal for managing agitation.
C: Increasing morphine infusion can exacerbate sedation or respiratory depression.
D: Paralytic agents are used for neuromuscular blockade, not agitation control.
The nurse has identified an increase in medication errors in the critical care unit over the past several months. What aspect of medication procedures should be evaluated first?
- A. Adherence to procedures by nursing staff
- B. Clarity of interdisciplinary communication
- C. Number of new employees on the unit
- D. Changes in administration procedures
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Adherence to procedures by nursing staff. This should be evaluated first because medication errors are often caused by human factors such as staff not following proper procedures. By assessing adherence, the root cause of errors can be identified and addressed.
Choice B: Clarity of interdisciplinary communication may contribute to errors but doesn't directly address staff adherence to procedures.
Choice C: Number of new employees could be a factor, but focusing on adherence to procedures is more crucial.
Choice D: Changes in administration procedures may impact errors, but evaluating staff adherence is more immediate and directly related to errors.
The nurse is using presence to reduce the anxiety of a critically ill patient. What nursing behavior demonstrates an effective use of presence?
- A. Staying in the patients room to complete documentation
- B. Having a conversation in the patients room that excludes the patient
- C. Maintaining eye contact with the patient during explanations
- D. Focusing on specific nursing care tasks while in the patients room
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because maintaining eye contact with the patient during explanations is a non-verbal way to show attentiveness and empathy, which can help reduce the patient's anxiety. This behavior demonstrates active listening and engagement, making the patient feel heard and understood.
A: Staying in the patient's room to complete documentation is not an effective use of presence as it does not involve direct interaction with the patient.
B: Having a conversation in the patient's room that excludes the patient is also not an effective use of presence as it does not involve engaging with the patient.
D: Focusing on specific nursing care tasks while in the patient's room, although important, may not necessarily demonstrate presence in reducing the patient's anxiety.
A 16-year-old male client is admitted to the hospital after falling off a bike and sustaining a fractured bone. The healthcare provider explains the surgery needed to immobilize the fracture. Which action should be implemented to obtain a valid informed consent?
- A. Obtain the permission of the custodial parent for the surgery.
- B. Notify the non-custodial parent to also sign a consent form.
- C. Instruct the client sign the consent before giving medications.
- D. Obtain the signature of the client’s stepfather for the surgery.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obtain the permission of the custodial parent for the surgery. In this scenario, the client is a minor (16 years old), which means they are not legally able to provide informed consent for medical procedures. The custodial parent holds legal responsibility for the minor's healthcare decisions. Thus, obtaining the permission of the custodial parent is crucial to ensure valid informed consent.
Choice B is incorrect because the non-custodial parent's consent may not be legally required if the custodial parent is available to provide consent. Choice C is incorrect because obtaining consent should precede any administration of medications. Choice D is incorrect as the stepfather's consent may not hold legal weight unless designated as a legal guardian.