Which statement indicates to the nurse the client diagnosed with asthma understands the teaching regarding mast cell stabilizer medications?
- A. I should take two (2) puffs when I begin to have an asthma attack.
- B. I must taper off the medications and not stop taking them abruptly.
- C. These drugs will be most effective if taken at bedtime.
- D. These drugs are not good at the time of an attack.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Mast cell stabilizers (D) prevent asthma by stabilizing mast cells, not treating acute attacks. Puffs during attack (A), tapering (B), and bedtime use (C) are incorrect.
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The client diagnosed with exercise-induced asthma (EIA) is being discharged. Which information should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Take two (2) puffs on the rescue inhaler and wait five (5) minutes before exercise.
- B. Warm-up exercises will increase the potential for developing the asthma attacks.
- C. Use the bronchodilator inhaler immediately prior to beginning to exercise.
- D. Increase dietary intake of food high in monosodium glutamate (MSG).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Two puffs of a rescue inhaler 5 minutes before exercise (A) prevents EIA. Warm-ups (B) reduce attacks, immediate use (C) is less effective, and MSG (D) is a trigger.
After collecting the sputum specimen from the client, which nursing action is most appropriate?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Provide mouth care
- C. Offer nourishment
- D. Encourage ambulation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Providing mouth care after sputum collection improves client comfort and removes residual sputum from the mouth.
Which assessment data indicate to the nurse the client diagnosed with Legionnaires' disease is experiencing a complication?
- A. The client has an elevated body temperature.
- B. The client has less than 30 mL urine output an hour.
- C. The client has a decrease in body aches.
- D. The client has an elevated white blood cell count.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria (<30 mL/hr, B) indicates renal failure, a serious complication of Legionnaires' disease due to systemic infection or shock. Fever (A) and elevated WBC (D) are expected in active infection, not complications. Decreased body aches (C) suggests improvement, not a complication.
A patient is admitted with pneumonia. Sputum cultures show that the patient is infected with a gram positive bacterium. The patient is allergic to Penicillin. Which medication would the patient most likely be prescribed?
- A. Macrolide
- B. Cephalosporins
- C. Pencillin G
- D. Tamiflu
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For gram-positive bacterial pneumonia in a penicillin-allergic patient, macrolides like azithromycin are commonly prescribed due to their efficacy and safety. Cephalosporins may cross-react with penicillin allergies, Penicillin G is contraindicated, and Tamiflu is for viral infections.
The nurse is assessing a 79-year-old client diagnosed with pneumonia. Which signs and symptoms should the nurse expect to assess in the client?
- A. Confusion and lethargy.
- B. High fever and chills.
- C. Frothy sputum and edema.
- D. Bradypnea and jugular vein distention.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Elderly pneumonia patients often present with confusion/lethargy (A) due to hypoxia. Fever/chills (B) are less common in the elderly, frothy sputum/edema (C) suggest heart failure, and bradypnea/JVD (D) are unrelated.
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