Which statement is a likely response from someone who h as survived a stay in the critical care unit?
- A. “I don’t remember much about being in the ICU, but if I had to be treated there again, it would be okay. I’m glad I can see my grandchildren again.”
- B. “If I get that sick again, do not take me to the hospital. I would rather die than go through having a breathing tube put in again.”
- C. “My family is thrilled that I am home. I know I need some extra attention, but my children have rearranged their schedules to help me ou t.”
- D. “Since I have been transferred out of the ICU, I cannot get enough to eat. They didn’t let me eat in the ICU, so I’m making up for it no w.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it reflects a positive attitude towards potential future treatments in the critical care unit and gratitude for being able to see family again. The survivor acknowledges the past experience but remains optimistic.
Summary:
- Choice B is incorrect as it shows a strong aversion to hospital care, indicating a preference for death over treatment.
- Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on the family's reaction and not the survivor's personal experience or perspective.
- Choice D is incorrect as it highlights a trivial aspect (eating) rather than reflecting on the ICU experience or future treatments.
You may also like to solve these questions
A patient declared brain dead is an organ donor. The following events occur: 1300 Diagnostic tests for brain death are completed. 1330 primary care provider reviews diagnostic test results and writes in the progress note that the patient is brain deaadb.i r1b.4co0m0/ tePsat tient is taken to the operating room for organ retrieval. 1800 All organs have b een retrieved for donation. The ventilator is discontinued. 1810 Cardiac monitor shows fla tline. What is the official time of death recorded in the medical record?
- A. 1300
- B. 1330
- C. 1400
- D. 1800
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: The correct answer is not provided, but based on the events described, the official time of death recorded in the medical record should be 1810 (Choice D). At this time, the cardiac monitor shows flatline, indicating the cessation of cardiac activity, which is the universally accepted point of declaring death.
Choice A (1300) is incorrect because that is when diagnostic tests for brain death were completed, but the patient was not officially declared dead at that time.
Choice B (1330) is incorrect as this is when the primary care provider reviewed the test results and documented brain death in the progress note, but the patient was not officially declared dead at this time either.
Choice C (1400) is incorrect as there is no significant event occurring at this time that signifies the patient's death.
Therefore, the most appropriate and official time of death recorded in the medical record would be 1810 when the cardiac monitor shows flatline.
Intrapulmonary shunting refers to what outcome?
- A. Alveoli that are not perfused.
- B. Blood that is shunted from the left side of the heart to t he right and causes heart failure.
- C. Blood that is shunted from the right side of the heart to the left without oxygenation.
- D. Shunting of blood supply to only one lung.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C is correct:
1. Intrapulmonary shunting refers to blood bypassing the normal oxygenation process in the lungs.
2. Choice C describes blood being shunted from the right side of the heart (deoxygenated blood) to the left side without oxygenation, leading to systemic circulation without oxygenation.
3. Choices A, B, and D do not accurately describe intrapulmonary shunting as they focus on other concepts like alveolar perfusion, heart failure, and unilateral lung blood supply, respectively.
The family members are excited about being transferring t heir loved one from the critical care unit to the intermediate care unit. However, they are also fearful of the change in environment and nursing staff. To reduce relocation stress, the nurse ca n implement what intervention? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Arranging for the nurses on the intermediate care unit to give the family a tour of the new unit.
- B. Contacting the primary care provider to see if the patient can stay one additional day in the critical care unit so that the family can adjus t better to the idea of a transfer.
- C. Ensuring that the patient will be located near the nurse ’s station in the new unit.
- D. Inviting the nurse who will be assuming the patient’s care to meet with the patient and family in the critical care unit prior to transfer.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (Arranging for the nurses on the intermediate care unit to give the family a tour of the new unit) because it helps familiarize the family with the new environment, alleviating their fears. The tour allows them to see where their loved one will be cared for, meet the nursing staff, and ask any questions they may have. This intervention promotes a smooth transition, reduces anxiety, and builds trust.
Choice B is incorrect because delaying the transfer doesn't address the fear of change and can prolong stress. Choice C is incorrect as proximity to the nurse's station may not necessarily reduce relocation stress for the family. Choice D is incorrect because meeting the new nurse in the current unit may not provide the same level of comfort and preparation compared to physically visiting the new unit.
The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient in the critica l care unit. The physician has ordered patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) for the patient. The nurse understands what facts about the PCA? (Select all that apply.)
- A. It is a safe and effective method for administering anal gesia.
- B. It has potentially fewer side effects than other routes of analgesic administration.
- C. It is an ideal method to provide critically ill patients so me control over their treatment.
- D. It does not work well without family assistance
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why Answer A is correct:
1. Patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) allows patients to self-administer pain medication within preset limits, promoting pain management.
2. PCA is considered safe and effective as it provides better pain control, reduces the risk of overdose, and allows for individualized dosing.
3. Healthcare providers can monitor and adjust the PCA settings as needed to ensure optimal pain relief.
4. Studies have shown that PCA is a preferred method for postoperative pain management due to its efficacy and safety profile.
5. Overall, PCA is a reliable and beneficial approach to analgesia administration in postoperative patients.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B: While PCA may have fewer side effects compared to some routes, this is not a defining characteristic of PCA.
C: While patients do have some control over their treatment with PCA, the primary focus is on pain management rather than giving control to critically ill patients.
D: PCA can be used effectively without family
Which assessment would cue the nurse to the potential of aa bc iru bt .ce o mre /ts ep sti ratory distress syndrome (ARDS) in a patient admitted with respiratory distress?
- A. Increased oxygen saturation via pulse oximetry
- B. Increased peak inspiratory pressure on the ventilator
- C. Normal chest radiograph with enlarged cardiac structures
- D. PaO /FiO ratio > 300 2 2
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increased peak inspiratory pressure on the ventilator would cue the nurse to the potential of ARDS in a patient with respiratory distress. ARDS is characterized by severe respiratory failure with bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. An increase in peak inspiratory pressure on the ventilator indicates that the lungs are becoming stiffer, which is a common finding in ARDS due to increased inflammation and fluid accumulation in the alveoli. This finding alerts the nurse to the possibility of ARDS and the need for further assessment and intervention.
Summary of other choices:
A: Increased oxygen saturation via pulse oximetry is a nonspecific finding and may not specifically indicate ARDS.
C: Normal chest radiograph with enlarged cardiac structures is more indicative of heart failure rather than ARDS.
D: PaO2/FiO2 ratio > 300 is a criterion used to diagnose ARDS, but a value higher than 300 actually indicates mild ARDS, so it would not necessarily cue the nurse
Nokea