Which statement would indicate the use and abuse of power in a violent family situation?
- A. I admit I was mad and yelling and swinging my fists in the air, but I wasn't trying to hit our child. I was letting off some steam. My spouse just overreacted.'
- B. When she found out I watched television instead of taking the kids to the park, she starting yelling about how I don't care about the kids. She has no right to get mad at me. I should have some time to myself.'
- C. I thought he would like this new recipe. I should have known better. I will not do that again. He was right. He works all day and should come home to a good meal that he can enjoy. It's not too much to ask of a wife.'
- D. All I did was tell him I need some money. I can't understand why he can't just give me what I need. I stay home and take care of his house and kids, and I have to almost beg before he gives me money to spend on myself.'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it reflects an imbalance of power within the family dynamic. The statement indicates an acceptance of blame and a submissive attitude, suggesting a power dynamic where one person feels the need to please and appease the other. This behavior can indicate an abuse of power by the dominant individual, leading to a controlling and potentially manipulative relationship.
In contrast, the other choices do not clearly demonstrate an abuse of power. Choice A shows anger management issues but does not necessarily indicate a power dynamic. Choice B focuses on a disagreement over parenting responsibilities rather than a power struggle. Choice D highlights financial disagreements but does not explicitly show an abuse of power.
Therefore, Choice C is the most indicative of power abuse in a family situation.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client seen by the rape crisis nurse 1 month after the incident states, 'I'm confused and just not myself. I have mood swings during the day, and I have nightmares at night. Sometimes I think I'm going crazy.' Other times, she is just plain afraid to be alone. The nurse should assess the client for:
- A. Trauma syndrome.
- B. Post-traumatic stress disorder.
- C. Acute stress disorder.
- D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trauma syndrome. This choice is correct because the client's symptoms of confusion, mood swings, nightmares, feeling like they are going crazy, and fear of being alone align with the criteria for trauma syndrome. This syndrome encompasses a range of symptoms that occur after experiencing a traumatic event, such as rape.
Choice B: Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is not the best option in this case because the client's symptoms are more indicative of acute distress and confusion rather than the criteria for a formal diagnosis of PTSD, which typically requires the persistence of symptoms over time.
Choice C: Acute stress disorder is also not the most appropriate choice because while some symptoms may align, the duration and specific criteria for this disorder may not fully match the client's presentation.
Choice D: None of the above is incorrect as trauma syndrome best fits the client's symptoms based on the information provided.
Which of the following is a common complication of anorexia nervosa?
- A. Hypertension and hyperglycemia.
- B. Cardiovascular instability and electrolyte imbalances.
- C. Insulin resistance and excessive weight gain.
- D. Severe dehydration and frequent urination.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cardiovascular instability and electrolyte imbalances. Anorexia nervosa can lead to severe malnutrition, causing cardiovascular issues like low heart rate and blood pressure. Electrolyte imbalances occur due to inadequate nutrient intake. Hypertension and hyperglycemia (choice A) are not common in anorexia. Insulin resistance and weight gain (choice C) are more associated with conditions like obesity. Severe dehydration and frequent urination (choice D) are not typical manifestations of anorexia.
A nurse has completed the assessment for a patient who has a maladaptive response to eating regulation. Findings include the following: height, 5 feet 3 inches; current weight, 80 pounds with weight loss of 30% of body weight over the past 3 months; T, 96.6m F; BP, 68/40; P, 40; R, 20; poor skin turgor; lanugo; amenorrhea of 6 months' duration; admits to restricting intake to 350 calories daily; dissatisfied with eating pattern as evidenced by patient statement, 'I need to lose another 10 pounds to be at an ideal weight.' These assessment findings are most consistent with the medical diagnosis of:
- A. bulimia nervosa.
- B. anorexia nervosa.
- C. binge-eating disorder.
- D. disturbed body image.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anorexia nervosa. The assessment findings align with the diagnostic criteria for anorexia nervosa, including significant weight loss, restrictive eating patterns, distorted body image, amenorrhea, and physical signs like poor skin turgor and lanugo. The patient's extreme weight loss, restrictive calorie intake, dissatisfaction with weight despite being underweight, and other physical and psychological symptoms are classic indicators of anorexia nervosa.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Bulimia nervosa involves binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors, which are not evident in this case.
C: Binge-eating disorder involves recurrent episodes of binge eating without compensatory behaviors, which are not present here.
D: Disturbed body image may be present in anorexia nervosa, but the key features of weight loss, restrictive eating, and amenorrhea are more indicative of anorexia nervosa.
Police bring a 63-year-old woman to the emergency room, reporting that her behavior is disorganized and disruptive, that her speech makes little sense, and that she does not seem able to take care of herself. The woman has had elective surgeries at the hospital previously and was seen in the ER last week after a fall; records show no history of similar symptoms or mental illness. The ER physician speaks with the patient but does not examine her medically, diagnoses her with schizophrenia, and orders admission to the inpatient psychiatric unit. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
- A. Ask another physician with more of an interest in psychiatry to also take a look at this patient, explaining that you just want to be as thorough as possible.
- B. Suggest that a psychiatric consult be requested before admitting the patient to a psychiatric unit, to validate the diagnosis and speed the initiation of medication.
- C. Remind the physician that schizophrenia usually develops earlier in life, that such presentations may be caused by medical problems, and suggest a medical work-up.
- D. Note that the patient's blood pressure and respirations were elevated when she arrived, and suggest that they be evaluated before admitting the patient to the psychiatric unit.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it demonstrates critical thinking and patient advocacy. By reminding the physician that schizophrenia typically develops earlier in life and suggesting a medical work-up, the nurse is advocating for a comprehensive approach to ruling out potential medical causes for the patient's symptoms before jumping to a psychiatric diagnosis. This approach aligns with best practices in patient care and ensures that all possible underlying causes are considered and addressed appropriately.
Choice A is incorrect because it does not address the need for a medical work-up to rule out physical causes of the symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on validating the diagnosis and initiating medication rather than investigating potential medical issues. Choice D is incorrect as it only addresses the patient's vital signs, overlooking the need for a thorough medical evaluation.
An individual brought by ambulance to the emergency room is accompanied by a roommate. The patient fights against the restraints and shouts incoherently. The roommate reports that the patient was weak and confused on awakening this morning and about 3 hours ago began "rambling and talking crazy."Â A nurse notes that the patient's skin is flushed and dry. The priority nursing action is to:
- A. take the patient's vital signs.
- B. start intravenous fluids.
- C. administer a sedative.
- D. perform a mental status examination.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: take the patient's vital signs. This is the priority action because the patient is exhibiting signs of potential medical emergency, such as altered mental status, flushed and dry skin, and confusion. Vital signs can provide crucial information about the patient's condition and help determine the urgency of the situation. Starting intravenous fluids (B) may be necessary but should be based on the assessment of vital signs first. Administering a sedative (C) is not appropriate without knowing the underlying cause of the symptoms. Performing a mental status examination (D) is important but not the priority in this situation where the patient's physical condition needs immediate attention.
Nokea