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Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?
- A. Pupil dilation
- B. Increased heart rate
- C. Decreased salivation
- D. Decreased peristalsis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.
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A school nurse is assessing a female high school student who is overly concerned about her appearance. The client's mother states, 'That's not something to be stressed about!' Which is the most appropriate nursing response?
- A. Teenagers! They don't know a thing about real stress.
- B. Stress occurs only when there is a loss.
- C. When you are in poor physical condition, you can't experience psychological well-being.
- D. Stress can be psychological. A threat to self-esteem may result in high stress levels.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Stress can manifest as physical or psychological. A perceived threat to self-esteem can be as stressful as a physiological change. Choice A is dismissive of the teenager's concerns and does not address the issue professionally. Choice B is incorrect as stress can result from various factors, not just loss. Choice C oversimplifies the relationship between physical condition and psychological well-being, neglecting the impact of mental stressors on overall health.
During a mental health assessment on an adult client, which client action would demonstrate the highest achievement in terms of mental health according to Maslow's hierarchy of needs?
- A. Maintaining a long-term, faithful, intimate relationship
- B. Achieving a sense of self-confidence
- C. Possessing a feeling of self-fulfillment and realizing full potential
- D. Developing a sense of purpose and the ability to direct activities
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, self-actualization is the highest level. Possessing a feeling of self-fulfillment and realizing full potential reflects self-actualization. This level represents achieving personal growth, self-improvement, and reaching one's full potential, indicating optimal mental health. Choices A, B, and D represent lower levels of needs according to Maslow's hierarchy. Maintaining a long-term relationship indicates belongingness and love needs, achieving self-confidence pertains to esteem needs, and developing a sense of purpose relates to self-esteem and self-actualization needs, but they are not at the pinnacle of self-actualization as in choice C.
A patient is being educated about the difference between mental health and mental illness. Which statement by the patient reflects an accurate understanding of mental health?
- A. Mental health is the absence of any stressors.
- B. Mental health is successful adaptation to stressors in the internal and external environment.
- C. Mental health is incongruence between thoughts, feelings, and behavior.
- D. Mental health is a diagnostic category in the DSM-5.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Mental health is defined as the successful adaptation to stressors in the internal and external environment. This includes having thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that are age-appropriate and congruent with cultural and societal norms. Mental health is not solely the absence of stressors or incongruence between thoughts, feelings, and behavior, nor is it a specific diagnostic category in the DSM-5. Choice A is incorrect because mental health is not just the absence of stressors but the ability to adapt to them. Choice C is wrong as mental health involves congruence, not incongruence, between thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. Choice D is inaccurate as mental health is a broader concept than a specific diagnostic category in the DSM-5.
A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which of the following interventions should the nurse not implement?
- A. Agree with the client's delusions to avoid confrontation.
- B. Monitor for signs of suicidal ideation
- C. Promote a regular sleep schedule
- D. Discourage the expression of negative feelings
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During a depressive episode in bipolar disorder, it is crucial not to agree with the client's delusions to avoid reinforcing false beliefs. Monitoring for signs of suicidal ideation is essential for safety. Promoting a regular sleep schedule can help stabilize mood. Discouraging the expression of negative feelings is not recommended as it is important to allow clients to express their emotions and feel heard.
During an assessment of a client with suspected substance use disorder, which of the following findings should the nurse expect? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Feelings of hopelessness
- B. Increased tolerance to the substance
- C. Withdrawal symptoms when not using the substance
- D. Unsuccessful attempts to cut down or control use
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In clients with substance use disorder, common findings include increased tolerance to the substance, withdrawal symptoms when not using it, and unsuccessful attempts to cut down or control use. Feelings of hopelessness are not typically a direct manifestation of substance use disorder. Instead, feelings of hopelessness may be associated with other mental health conditions or situational factors. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choices B, C, and D are all expected findings in clients with substance use disorder.