Nokea
Which techniques should be used to administer an intradermal (ID) injection for a Mantoux test to screen for tuberculosis (TB)? Select all that apply.
- A. Observe for an intradermal bleed after the antigen is injected
- B. Select an ID site using the volar surface of the forearm
- C. Use a 26 or 27-gauge needle with a length of 1/4 to 5/8 inches on a 1 ml calibrated syringe
- D. Ensure that the needle is inserted into the skin with the bevel up
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Observing for an intradermal bleed after the antigen is injected is a proper technique for an ID injection. This is important to confirm the correct placement of the injection. Choice B is correct because the recommended site for an ID injection for a Mantoux test is the volar surface of the forearm. Choice C is incorrect because the standard needle size for an ID injection is usually 26 or 27 gauge with a length of 1/4 to 5/8 inches, not 25 gauge with a length of 1/2 inch. Choice D is incorrect because the needle should be inserted into the skin with the bevel facing up, not down.
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A group of nurses implemented a pilot study to evaluate a proposed evidence-based change to providing client care. Evaluation indicates successful outcomes, and the nurses want to integrate the change throughout the facility. Which action should be taken? (Select all that apply)
- A. Invite data review by the quality improvement department
- B. Submit a sentinel event report to the research committee
- C. Propose clinical practice guidelines to the nursing committee
- D. Arrange in-service training through the educational department
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Inviting data review by the quality improvement department is crucial to ensure the quality and efficacy of the proposed evidence-based change. This step allows for a comprehensive analysis of the data collected during the pilot study. Proposing clinical practice guidelines to the nursing committee is also essential for integrating the successful change into routine practice. In-service training through the educational department will help educate staff and ensure they are proficient in implementing the new practices. Submitting a sentinel event report to the research committee is not necessary in this scenario as the outcomes were successful, and there were no adverse events that would warrant such a report. Choices B, C, and D are not as relevant in this context compared to inviting data review by the quality improvement department, which is a crucial step in ensuring the success of the proposed change.
What information is most important for the nurse to provide to an adolescent female prescribed azithromycin for lower lobe pneumonia and recurrent chlamydia?
- A. Ensure the partner is screened for chlamydia
- B. Report any signs of liver dysfunction immediately
- C. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice while on this medication
- D. Use two forms of contraception while taking this drug
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to provide to an adolescent female prescribed azithromycin for lower lobe pneumonia and recurrent chlamydia is to use two forms of contraception while taking this drug. Azithromycin can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives, increasing the risk of pregnancy. It is crucial to convey this information to prevent unintended pregnancies. Option A is incorrect as the partner should be screened for chlamydia, not HIV, in this case. Option B is not the most important information to provide as liver dysfunction is a rare side effect of azithromycin. Option C is irrelevant as grapefruit juice does not interact with azithromycin. Therefore, the priority information to convey is the importance of using dual contraception to prevent pregnancy.
The parents of a 6-year-old recently diagnosed with asthma should be taught that the symptom of acute episodes of asthma is due to which physiological response?
- A. Inflammation of the mucous membrane & bronchospasm
- B. Increased mucus production and bronchoconstriction
- C. Allergic reactions and hyperventilation
- D. Airway narrowing and decreased lung capacity
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inflammation of the mucous membrane & bronchospasm. Acute asthma episodes are primarily caused by inflammation of the airways and bronchospasm, which lead to airway obstruction. Increased mucus production and bronchoconstriction (Choice B) are part of the physiological responses in asthma but do not directly cause acute episodes. Allergic reactions and hyperventilation (Choice C) are related to asthma triggers and responses but are not the direct causes of acute episodes. Airway narrowing and decreased lung capacity (Choice D) are consequences of inflammation and bronchospasm but do not explain the physiological response leading to acute asthma episodes.
A client with major depression who is taking fluoxetine calls the psychiatric clinic reporting being more agitated, irritable, and anxious than usual. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Tell the client to have a complete blood count (CBC) drawn
- B. Instruct the client to seek medical attention immediately
- C. Encourage them to take the medication at night with a snack
- D. Explain that these are common side effects of the medication
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Increased agitation, irritability, and anxiety can be signs of serotonin syndrome or other serious side effects, not common side effects of fluoxetine. Instructing the client to seek medical attention immediately is crucial to address any potential serious adverse reactions. Option A is unnecessary as a CBC would not address the symptoms described. Option C is not the priority when serious side effects are suspected. Option D is incorrect as these symptoms should not be dismissed as common side effects.
Which client requires careful nursing assessment for signs and symptoms of hypomagnesemia?
- A. A young adult client with intractable vomiting from food poisoning
- B. A client who developed hyperparathyroidism in late adolescence
- C. A middle-aged male client in renal failure following an unsuccessful kidney transplant
- D. A female client who is overzealous with her intake of simple carbohydrates
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Vomiting can lead to significant loss of magnesium, causing hypomagnesemia. In this scenario, the young adult client with intractable vomiting from food poisoning is at higher risk of developing hypomagnesemia due to the loss of magnesium through vomiting. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to present with hypomagnesemia. Hyperparathyroidism (B) is associated with hypercalcemia, renal failure (C) can lead to hypermagnesemia, and overconsumption of simple carbohydrates (D) is not directly linked to magnesium imbalances.