Nokea
Which type of bath would you recommend for a patient experiencing pruritus?
- A. Saline
- B. Colloidal (oatmeal)
- C. Water
- D. Sodium bicarbonate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best choice for a pruritus (itching) patient is a colloidal (oatmeal) bath, as it is known for its soothing effect on itchy, irritated skin. Saline, water, and sodium bicarbonate baths may not provide the same level of relief for pruritus. The nursing care should involve comprehensive assessments and appropriate interventions to optimize patient outcomes. In this case, a colloidal bath is the most suitable intervention for a patient experiencing pruritus.
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When a nurse signs a consent form, which ethical principle is being observed regarding the patient?
- A. Autonomy
- B. Justice
- C. Accountability
- D. Beneficence
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Autonomy'. Autonomy refers to the patient's right to make their own decisions, which is being honored when a nurse signs a consent form. While beneficence (Choice D) is an important ethical principle that involves acting in the patient's best interest, it is not what is being primarily observed in this instance. Justice (Choice B) refers to fairness and equal treatment and is not specifically relevant to this scenario. Accountability (Choice C) pertains to being answerable for one's actions and decisions, but again, it is not the principle directly observed in this situation. Therefore, when a nurse signs a consent form, it is the principle of autonomy that is being observed.
During blood administration, what is essential for the nurse to do in order to carefully monitor for adverse reactions?
- A. Stay with the client for the first 15 minutes of blood administration
- B. Stay with the client for the entire period of blood administration
- C. Run the infusion at a faster rate during the first 15 minutes
- D. Inform the client to notify the staff immediately for any adverse reaction
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of blood administration, it's crucial for the nurse to stay with the client for the first 15 minutes. This is because most adverse reactions are likely to occur within this initial period. Monitoring the client closely during this time allows for immediate detection and response to any potential reactions. Choice B, staying with the client for the entire period of blood administration, is not typically feasible or necessary, although regular checks should be conducted. Running the infusion at a faster rate during the first 15 minutes (Choice C) is incorrect as this can actually increase the risk of adverse reactions. Informing the client to notify the staff immediately for any adverse reaction (Choice D) is an important practice, but it is not the most direct way for the nurse to monitor for adverse reactions.
When taking a blood pressure reading, where should the cuff be positioned?
- A. The cuff should be deflated fully before immediately starting a second reading for the same patient
- B. The cuff should be deflated quickly after being inflated to 180 mmHg
- C. The cuff should be large enough to wrap around the upper arm of the adult patient, positioned 1 cm above the brachial artery
- D. The cuff should be inflated to 30 mmHg above the estimated systolic BP based on palpation of the radial or brachial artery
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When measuring blood pressure, the cuff should be inflated to 30 mmHg above the estimated systolic blood pressure based on palpation of the radial or brachial artery. This ensures an accurate blood pressure measurement. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Deflating the cuff fully before starting a second reading (Choice A) does not directly relate to the position of the cuff during a reading. Deflating the cuff quickly after inflating to 180 mmHg (Choice B) is not recommended because it can potentially lead to inaccurate readings. While ensuring the cuff is large enough to wrap around the upper arm positioned 1 cm above the brachial artery is important (Choice C), this alone does not guarantee an accurate blood pressure reading. The correct inflation based on palpation is the key element for accuracy, which is why Choice D is correct.
When can a patient's medical record become a potential issue for the doctor or nurse?
- A. When the record is extensive
- B. When a medical record is subpoenaed in court
- C. When it is missing
- D. When the medical record is inaccurate, incomplete, or inadequate
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A medical record becomes a potential issue for a doctor or a nurse when it is inaccurate, incomplete, or inadequate. This is because a medical record is a key tool for healthcare professionals to track a patient's history, treatment, and progress. If the record is not accurate or complete, it can lead to misdiagnosis, incorrect treatment, or other potential problems in patient care. While missing records (Choice C) could be a problem, they do not directly implicate the doctor or nurse in the same way that inaccurate or inadequate records do. An extensive record (Choice A) or a record being subpoenaed in court (Choice B) are not inherently problematic for healthcare professionals and do not necessarily reflect negatively on their work.
During which phase of the therapeutic relationship should the nurse inform the patient about the termination of therapy?
- A. Pre-orientation
- B. Orientation
- C. Working
- D. Termination
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Termination'. This phase of the therapeutic relationship is when the nurse informs the patient about the conclusion of therapy. It is during this phase that the nurse and the patient review the goals and progress made and also discuss the upcoming termination. The other phases are not the appropriate times for discussing termination. 'Pre-orientation' is the phase before the nurse-patient relationship is established; 'Orientation' is when the nurse and patient get to know each other and set goals; and 'Working' is when these goals are pursued. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.