While administering a blood transfusion, a nurse suspects that the client is having an adverse reaction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Maintain IV access
- B. Obtain the client's vital signs
- C. Contact the provider
- D. Stop the transfusion
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when suspecting an adverse reaction to a blood transfusion is to stop the transfusion immediately. Stopping the transfusion helps prevent further harm to the client. Maintaining IV access and obtaining vital signs are important steps but come after stopping the transfusion in this situation. Contacting the provider can be done after ensuring the client's safety by stopping the transfusion.
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A nurse is caring for a client who has dehydration. The client has a peripheral IV and a prescription for an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 mL with 40 mEq potassium chloride to infuse over 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Teach the client to report findings of IV extravasation
- B. Evaluate the patency of the IV
- C. Consult with the pharmacist about the prescription
- D. Verify the prescription with the provider
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to verify the prescription with the provider. This is crucial to prevent injury from fluid volume overload and rapid potassium infusion. Verifying the prescription ensures that the correct solution, rate, and additives are ordered according to the client's condition. While evaluating the patency of the IV is important, verifying the prescription takes precedence to ensure patient safety. Consulting with the pharmacist can be beneficial, but confirming the prescription with the provider is the immediate priority. Teaching the client about IV extravasation is important but is not the first action the nurse should take in this scenario.
A home health nurse is providing teaching to the family of a client who has a seizure disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Keep a padded tongue depressor near the bedside
- B. Place a pillow under the client's head during a seizure
- C. Administer diazepam intravenously at the onset of seizures
- D. Position the client on their side during a seizure
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client who has a seizure disorder is to position the client on their side during a seizure. This helps to prevent aspiration and ensures a patent airway. Keeping a padded tongue depressor near the bedside (Choice A) is not recommended as it can cause injury during a seizure. Placing a pillow under the client's head during a seizure (Choice B) is also not advised as it can obstruct the airway. Administering diazepam intravenously at the onset of seizures (Choice C) is not typically done at home without healthcare provider direction.
A nurse is admitting a client who has suspected appendicitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
- A. Distended, board-like abdomen
- B. WBC count of 15,000/mm3
- C. Rebound tenderness over McBurney's point
- D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A distended, board-like abdomen should be reported to the provider immediately because it indicates peritonitis, a serious complication of appendicitis resulting from a ruptured appendix. Option B, an elevated WBC count, may indicate infection but is not as urgent as a board-like abdomen. Option C, rebound tenderness over McBurney's point, is a classic sign of appendicitis but does not indicate immediate life-threatening complications. Option D, a slightly elevated temperature, is not as concerning as a distended, board-like abdomen.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has COPD about nutrition. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Eat three large meals daily
- B. Consume high-calorie foods
- C. Limit caffeinated drinks to two per day
- D. Drink fluids during meal time
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Consume high-calorie foods.' Clients with COPD often have increased energy needs due to the work of breathing. Consuming high-calorie, high-protein foods can help provide the necessary energy and prevent weight loss. Choice A is incorrect because eating three large meals daily may lead to increased shortness of breath due to a full stomach putting pressure on the diaphragm. Choice C is incorrect because caffeinated drinks can contribute to dehydration, which is not ideal for clients with COPD. Choice D is incorrect because drinking fluids during mealtime can cause bloating and early satiety, making it difficult for clients to consume enough calories.
A nurse is caring for a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) and is receiving 3% sodium chloride via continuous IV. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the SIADH is resolving?
- A. Urine specific gravity 1.020
- B. Sodium 119 mEq/L
- C. BUN 8 mg/dL
- D. Calcium 8.7 mg/dL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.020 is within the expected reference range and indicates that the kidneys are appropriately concentrating urine, which is a sign that the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is resolving. A low sodium level (choice B) is associated with SIADH, so a sodium level of 119 mEq/L is not indicative of resolution. BUN (choice C) and calcium levels (choice D) are typically not directly related to SIADH resolution.
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