Nokea
While assessing a client four hours post-thoracentesis, the nurse is unable to auscultate breath sounds on the right side of the chest. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Instruct the client to perform cough and deep breathing exercises
- B. Assess the client's vital signs and respiratory effort
- C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula according to the PNR protocol
- D. Document assessment findings in the client's medical record
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to assess the client's vital signs and respiratory effort. It is crucial to promptly detect any immediate complications or changes in the client's condition. Instructing cough and deep breathing exercises (choice A) can be considered after further assessment. Administering oxygen (choice C) should be based on assessment findings and healthcare provider's orders. While documenting the findings (choice D) is essential, it should not be the first action when a potential issue with breath sounds is detected.
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After assessing an older adult with a suspected cerebrovascular accident (CVA), the nurse documents the client's right upper arm weakness and slurred speech. When the client complains of a severe headache and nausea, and the neurological assessment remains unchanged, which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer an oral analgesic with antiemetic
- B. Collect blood for coagulation times
- C. Send the client for a computed tomography scan of the brain
- D. Obtain a history of medication use, recent surgery, or injury
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to send the client for a computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain. A CT scan is crucial in assessing acute changes or bleeding that could influence treatment decisions in a suspected cerebrovascular accident (CVA). While addressing symptoms like headache and nausea is important, ruling out acute changes in the brain with a CT scan takes precedence in this situation. Collecting blood for coagulation times may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Obtaining a history of medication use, recent surgery, or injury is also important but not the first action to take when a CVA is suspected.
When lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID is prescribed for a male client with advanced cirrhosis, and he complains that it causes diarrhea, what action should the nurse take in response to the client's statement?
- A. Explain that diarrhea is expected, but the drug reduces ammonia levels
- B. Document that the client is non-compliant with his treatment plan
- C. Tell the client to be concerned about more significant side effects of this drug
- D. Obtain a prescription for loperamide (Imodium) 4mg PO PRN diarrhea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose when used to reduce ammonia levels in cirrhosis. It helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, thereby reducing its levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect because it is essential for the nurse to educate the client about the expected side effects of the medication rather than assuming non-compliance. Option C is incorrect as it instills unnecessary fear in the client by suggesting more significant side effects without addressing the current concern. Option D is incorrect as loperamide should not be given automatically for diarrhea caused by lactulose, as the diarrhea is a therapeutic effect of the medication in this context.
A client with diabetic peripheral neuropathy has been taking pregabalin for 4 days. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?
- A. Granulating tissue in foot ulcer
- B. Full volume of pedal pulse
- C. Reduced level of pain
- D. Improved visual activity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Reduced level of pain.' Pregabalin is used to manage neuropathic pain, so a reduction in pain indicates the medication's effectiveness in this case. Granulating tissue in a foot ulcer and the full volume of a pedal pulse are not direct indicators of pregabalin's effectiveness in managing neuropathic pain. Improved visual activity is not related to the effects of pregabalin in diabetic peripheral neuropathy.
A female client with fibromyalgia asks the nurse to arrange for hospice care to help her manage the severe, chronic pain. Which interdisciplinary team member should the nurse consult to assist the client?
- A. Contact a hospice nurse for an evaluation
- B. Arrange an appointment with a pain specialist
- C. Ask for a consultation with a psychologist
- D. Form an interdisciplinary team for evaluation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate interdisciplinary team member for the nurse to consult is a hospice nurse. Hospice nurses specialize in managing pain and symptom control, which aligns with the client's needs for managing severe chronic pain. While pain specialists (choice B) focus on pain management, in this case, the client specifically requested hospice care for pain management. Consulting a psychologist (choice C) may be beneficial for addressing psychological aspects, but the client's immediate need is pain management. Forming an interdisciplinary team (choice D) is not as specific as consulting a hospice nurse, who has the specialized skills required to address the client's pain effectively.
The nurse working on a mental health unit is prioritizing nursing care activities due to a staffing shortage. One practical nurse (PN) is on the unit with the nurse, and another RN is expected to arrive within two hours. Clients need to be awakened, and morning medications need to be prepared. Which plan is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Wake all the clients and instruct them to go to the dining area for medication administration
- B. Explain to the clients that it will be necessary to cooperate until another RN arrives
- C. Ask the PN to administer medications as clients are awakened so both nurses are available
- D. Allow the clients to sleep until a third staff person can assist with unit activities
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best plan for the nurse to implement is to ask the PN to administer medications as clients are awakened. This approach ensures that medication administration and client care are efficiently managed despite the staffing shortage. Option A is incorrect as it may disrupt the workflow and create unnecessary chaos. Option B is not the best choice as it does not address the immediate need for medication administration. Option D is not ideal as it delays client care until additional staff arrive, potentially compromising patient safety and timely medication administration.