While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?
- A. A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest
- B. An obese client who uses a wheelchair
- C. A client who had 3 episodes of incontinent diarrhea
- D. An 80-year-old ambulatory diabetic client
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to being malnourished and on bed rest, leading to decreased mobility and poor nutrition. This combination puts the client at significant risk for skin breakdown and pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because although obesity is a risk factor for developing pressure ulcers, immobility and poor nutrition are higher risk factors. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence can contribute to skin breakdown but is not as high a risk factor as immobility and poor nutrition. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client, even if diabetic, has better mobility than a bedridden client and is at lower risk for developing decubitus ulcers.
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The nurse is planning to administer two medications at 0900. Which property of the drugs indicates a need to monitor the client for toxicity?
- A. Short half-life
- B. High therapeutic index
- C. Highly protein-bound
- D. Low bioavailability
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Highly protein-bound.' Drugs that are highly protein-bound can displace from protein-binding sites, leading to increased free drug levels in the blood, which can result in toxicity. Monitoring the client for toxicity is crucial when administering highly protein-bound drugs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A short half-life does not necessarily indicate a need for monitoring toxicity; a high therapeutic index indicates a wide safety margin between the effective dose and the toxic dose, reducing the risk of toxicity; low bioavailability refers to the fraction of the drug that reaches the systemic circulation unchanged and does not directly relate to the risk of toxicity.
A 30-year-old male client reports difficulty sleeping due to anxiety about his upcoming surgery. What intervention would be most appropriate for the nurse to suggest?
- A. Suggest taking a mild sedative before bed.
- B. Encourage physical activity before bedtime.
- C. Advise listening to calming music before bed.
- D. Recommend reading a book before bed.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for the nurse to suggest to a 30-year-old male client experiencing difficulty sleeping due to anxiety about his upcoming surgery is to recommend taking a mild sedative before bed. A mild sedative can help manage anxiety and improve sleep in such situations. Encouraging physical activity before bedtime, advising to listen to calming music, or recommending reading a book may not directly address the client's anxiety and may not be as effective in promoting sleep in this scenario.
A male client reports that he took tadalafil 10 mg two hours ago and now feels flushed. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Instruct the client to increase oral fluid intake.
- B. Reassure the client that flushing is a common side effect.
- C. Advise the client to take nitroglycerin as a precaution.
- D. Ask the client to come to the emergency room.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reassure the client that flushing is a common side effect. Tadalafil, a medication used for erectile dysfunction, can cause flushing as a common side effect. In this situation, the nurse should provide reassurance to the client that the flushing is expected and not necessarily a cause for concern. Increasing oral fluid intake (choice A) may be beneficial for other conditions but is not directly related to tadalafil-induced flushing. Advising the client to take nitroglycerin (choice C) is incorrect, as nitroglycerin is not indicated for flushing. Asking the client to come to the emergency room (choice D) is unnecessary at this point since flushing is a known side effect and does not typically require urgent medical attention.
The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just received anesthesia. What is the most critical finding to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Client reports dizziness
- B. Client has a drop in blood pressure
- C. Client experiences mild nausea
- D. Client reports dry mouth
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A significant drop in blood pressure following anesthesia could indicate a serious reaction, such as hypovolemia or anesthetic-induced hypotension. This requires immediate medical attention, while other symptoms like dizziness, mild nausea, and dry mouth are more common and less critical. Dizziness could be expected due to the effects of anesthesia, mild nausea is a common side effect, and dry mouth is a known effect of anesthesia as well.
What information should the nurse include in the client's health record after a fall in the bathroom?
- A. Client fell while trying to go to the bathroom
- B. The UAP left the client alone and a fall occurred
- C. The client was found on the floor with no pulse
- D. The client fell, sustaining a fracture to the left hip
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the nurse should document factual, objective information such as the injury sustained by the client. Reporting the specific injury, like a fracture to the left hip, is crucial for accurate medical records. Choices A, B, and C lack specific detail about the injury and focus on different aspects of the fall that are not as pertinent for the health record. Choice A only mentions the fall without specifying the injury, choice B introduces blame without focusing on the client's condition, and choice C adds unnecessary information about the client's pulse which is not directly related to the fall injury.