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While caring for a client who is being mechanically ventilated, the nurse responds to a high-pressure alarm on the ventilator. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Endotracheal cuff pressure greater than 25 cm H2O.
- B. Decreased lung compliance during ventilation.
- C. Bilateral crackles with increased secretions.
- D. Restless client who is biting the endotracheal tube.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A restless client biting the endotracheal tube can increase airway resistance, triggering the high-pressure alarm and indicating a need for immediate intervention. This behavior can lead to complications such as dislodgement of the tube or airway obstruction. Endotracheal cuff pressure greater than 25 cm H2O, decreased lung compliance, and bilateral crackles with increased secretions are important assessments but do not directly address the urgent need to intervene when a high-pressure alarm is triggered.
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The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just undergone a thoracentesis. Which finding should be reported immediately?
- A. Diminished breath sounds on the affected side.
- B. Pain at the procedure site.
- C. Blood-tinged sputum.
- D. Shortness of breath.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Shortness of breath should be reported immediately as it may indicate a pneumothorax, a potential complication of thoracentesis. Diminished breath sounds on the affected side, pain at the procedure site, and blood-tinged sputum are common findings post-thoracentesis and do not necessarily indicate immediate complications like a pneumothorax.
A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia.
- B. Hyponatremia.
- C. Hypocalcemia.
- D. Hypokalemia.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not typically cause high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as furosemide primarily affects potassium levels, not sodium. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels.
A client with diabetes exhibits a blood sugar of 350 mg/dL. What is the nurse's best action?
- A. Administer insulin as prescribed
- B. Provide a carbohydrate-controlled snack
- C. Encourage physical activity
- D. Recheck the blood sugar
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a client with diabetes presenting with a blood sugar level of 350 mg/dL, the best action for the nurse is to administer insulin as prescribed. High blood sugar levels can lead to complications like diabetic ketoacidosis, making prompt insulin administration crucial to lower the blood glucose level. Providing a carbohydrate-controlled snack would be inappropriate as it may further elevate blood sugar levels. Encouraging physical activity is not advisable when the blood sugar is significantly high, as exercise can raise blood sugar levels. Rechecking the blood sugar is necessary after administering insulin to monitor the response to treatment.
Which structures are located in the subcutaneous layer of the skin?
- A. Sebaceous and sweat glands
- B. Melanin and keratin
- C. Sensory receptors and hair follicles
- D. Adipose cells and blood vessels
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adipose cells and blood vessels. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, primarily consists of adipose (fat) tissue and blood vessels. Adipose tissue provides insulation, energy storage, and cushioning, while blood vessels supply nutrients and oxygen. Sebaceous and sweat glands are located in the dermis, which is the layer beneath the epidermis. Melanin and keratin are components of the epidermis, responsible for skin color and waterproofing, respectively. Sensory receptors and hair follicles are found in the dermis and extend into the subcutaneous layer but are not exclusive to it.
A client with a history of seizure disorder who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Monitor drug levels regularly.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. Take the medication at the same time every day.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor drug levels regularly. This is crucial for phenytoin (Dilantin) to ensure that the medication levels are within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Choice A, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically required for phenytoin administration. Choice C, avoiding alcohol, is generally a good practice with medications but is not as critical as monitoring drug levels for phenytoin. Choice D, taking the medication at the same time every day, is important for consistency but does not address the specific monitoring needs of phenytoin.