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While caring for a client with an AV fistula in the left forearm, the PN observed a palpable buzzing sensation over the fistula. What action should the PN take?
- A. Loosen the fistula dressing
- B. Report the presence of a bounding pulse
- C. Document that the fistula is intact
- D. Apply gentle pressure over the site
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A palpable buzzing sensation, known as a thrill, over an AV fistula indicates proper functioning. The correct action for the PN is to document that the fistula is intact. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to loosen the fistula dressing when the thrill is felt. Choice B is incorrect as a bounding pulse is not related to the observed buzzing sensation. Choice D is incorrect because applying pressure is unnecessary when a thrill is present, indicating proper AV fistula function.
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A client is post-operative day one following a colostomy surgery. The nurse notices the stoma is dark purple. What is the most appropriate action?
- A. Document the finding and continue to monitor.
- B. Apply warm compresses to the stoma.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- D. Encourage the client to ambulate.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A dark purple stoma may indicate compromised blood flow to the stoma, which is an emergency. Immediate notification of the healthcare provider is necessary to prevent further complications. Simply documenting and monitoring the finding (Choice A) could lead to delays in addressing a potentially serious issue. Applying warm compresses to the stoma (Choice B) may not address the underlying cause of the dark purple color. Encouraging the client to ambulate (Choice D) is not the priority when a compromised blood flow to the stoma is suspected.
A female client who has been taking oral contraceptives for the past year comes to the clinic for an annual exam. Which finding is most important for the PN to report to the HCP?
- A. Breast tenderness
- B. Change in menstrual flow
- C. Left calf pain
- D. Weight gain of 5 pounds
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Left calf pain could indicate deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a serious side effect of oral contraceptives. Reporting this finding to the healthcare provider is critical for further evaluation and treatment. Breast tenderness and change in menstrual flow are common side effects of oral contraceptives and may not be as urgent as left calf pain. Weight gain of 5 pounds, while noteworthy, is not as concerning as a possible indication of DVT.
A client who had a left hemicolectomy is experiencing a low-grade fever on post-operative day three. What is the nurse's best action?
- A. Encourage deep breathing and the use of the incentive spirometer.
- B. Administer antipyretic medication as prescribed.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- D. Increase the client's fluid intake.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A low-grade fever on post-operative day three can be a sign of atelectasis, a common post-operative complication. Encouraging deep breathing and the use of the incentive spirometer can help prevent and treat this condition. Atelectasis is often due to shallow breathing, so option A is the best initial action to promote lung expansion. Administering antipyretic medication (option B) may help reduce the fever but does not directly address the underlying cause. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (option C) is not necessary at this point unless other concerning symptoms are present. Increasing the client's fluid intake (option D) is important for overall recovery but is not the priority in this scenario.
The nurse and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are providing care for a client who exhibits signs of neglect syndrome following a stroke affecting the right hemisphere. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Demonstrate to the UAP how to approach the client from the client's left side
- B. Ask the UAP to leave the room and assess the client's body for bruising
- C. Carefully observe the interaction between the client and family members
- D. Instruct the UAP to protect the client's left side when transferring to a chair
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to demonstrate to the UAP how to approach the client from the client's left side. Approaching the client from the neglected side (left side) can help in retraining the brain and improving awareness of the affected side, which is crucial in the management of neglect syndrome. Choice B is incorrect as assessing the client's body for bruising is not directly related to managing neglect syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as observing the interaction between the client and family members does not address the specific intervention needed for neglect syndrome. Choice D is incorrect because protecting the client's left side when transferring to a chair does not actively involve retraining the brain and improving awareness of the neglected side, which is the primary goal in managing neglect syndrome.
An 8-year-old is placed in 90-90 traction for a fractured femur resulting from a motor vehicle collision. Which finding requires further action by the nurse?
- A. No bowel movement for two days
- B. Mother assists child in changing positions
- C. Weights are touching the foot of the bed
- D. Child is able to move the toes freely when tickled
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In 90-90 traction, the weights should hang freely and not touch the foot of the bed to maintain proper traction and bone alignment. Option A is not necessarily a concern as bowel movements can be influenced by various factors, including diet changes and pain medication. Option B indicates good caregiver involvement, promoting comfort and preventing complications. Option D demonstrates neurovascular function, which is a positive finding. Therefore, the weights touching the foot of the bed is the finding that requires immediate attention to ensure the effectiveness of the traction.