Nokea
While caring for a newborn, a nurse auscultates an apical heart rate of 130/min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Ask another nurse to verify the heart rate.
- B. Document this as an expected finding.
- C. Call the provider to further assess the newborn.
- D. Prepare the newborn for transport to the NICU.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Document this as an expected finding. A heart rate of 130/min in a newborn is within the normal range (120-160/min). The nurse should document this as an expected finding because it indicates a healthy heart rate for a newborn. There is no immediate need for intervention or further assessment as the heart rate falls within the normal range for a newborn. Asking another nurse to verify the heart rate (choice A) is unnecessary as it is within the normal range. Calling the provider to further assess the newborn (choice C) is not needed since the heart rate is normal. Preparing the newborn for transport to the NICU (choice D) is not indicated as the heart rate is within the normal range.
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A client is scheduled for a cesarean birth based on fetal lung maturity. Which finding indicates that the fetal lungs are mature?
- A. Absence of Phosphatidylglycerol (PG)
- B. Biophysical profile score of 8
- C. Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio of 2:1
- D. Reactive nonstress test
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio of 2:1. This ratio indicates fetal lung maturity as it signifies adequate production of surfactant in the fetal lungs, essential for proper lung function after birth. Absence of Phosphatidylglycerol (PG) (Choice A) indicates immaturity, Biophysical profile score of 8 (Choice B) assesses overall fetal well-being, not lung maturity, and Reactive nonstress test (Choice D) evaluates fetal well-being, not lung maturity. The L/S ratio of 2:1 is the most reliable indicator of fetal lung maturity.
When advising a woman considering pregnancy on nutritional needs to reduce the risk of giving birth to a newborn with a neural tube defect, what information should the nurse include?
- A. Limit alcohol consumption.
- B. Increase intake of iron-rich foods.
- C. Consume foods fortified with folic acid.
- D. Avoid foods containing aspartame.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Consume foods fortified with folic acid. Folic acid plays a crucial role in preventing neural tube defects in newborns. It is recommended that women of childbearing age consume 400 mcg of folic acid daily to reduce the risk. Foods fortified with folic acid include cereals, bread, and pasta.
A: Limit alcohol consumption - While important for overall health, alcohol consumption is not directly related to preventing neural tube defects.
B: Increase intake of iron-rich foods - Iron is essential during pregnancy, but it is not specifically linked to reducing the risk of neural tube defects.
D: Avoid foods containing aspartame - Aspartame is a sweetener and does not have a direct impact on neural tube defects prevention.
During an assessment of a newborn following a vacuum-assisted delivery, which of the following findings should the healthcare provider be informed about?
- A. Poor sucking
- B. Blue discoloration of the hands and feet
- C. Soft, edematous area on the scalp
- D. Facial edema
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Poor sucking. This finding is concerning as it may indicate potential issues with feeding and nutrition in the newborn, which can lead to complications. Poor sucking can be a sign of various underlying problems that require prompt intervention. Blue discoloration of the hands and feet (choice B) is likely due to peripheral cyanosis, which is common in newborns and often resolves on its own. Soft, edematous area on the scalp (choice C) is a common finding in newborns after vacuum-assisted delivery and typically resolves without intervention. Facial edema (choice D) is also a common finding in newborns after delivery and typically resolves on its own.
When monitoring uterine contractions in a client in the active phase of the first stage of labor, which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds
- B. Contractions occurring every 3 to 5 minutes
- C. Contractions are strong in intensity
- D. Client reports feeling contractions in the lower back
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds can indicate uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to decreased oxygenation of the fetus. This finding should be reported to the provider for further assessment and intervention. Contractions occurring every 3 to 5 minutes (choice B) are normal in the active phase of labor. Strong contractions (choice C) are also expected during this phase. Feeling contractions in the lower back (choice D) is common and not typically a cause for concern. Reporting contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds is crucial to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.
A client is in the first trimester of pregnancy and lacks immunity to rubella. When should the client receive rubella immunization?
- A. Shortly after giving birth
- B. In the third trimester
- C. Immediately
- D. During the next attempt to get pregnant
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rubella immunization should be given shortly after giving birth to prevent any potential harm to the fetus during pregnancy. Immunization during pregnancy is contraindicated to avoid any risk of harm to the developing baby. Option B is incorrect as immunization in the third trimester can still pose a risk to the fetus. Option C is incorrect as immediate immunization during pregnancy is not recommended. Option D is incorrect as waiting until the next attempt to get pregnant does not protect the current fetus.