Nokea
While changing a client's post-operative dressing, the nurse observes a red and swollen wound with a moderate amount of yellow and green drainage and a foul odor. Given there is a positive MRSA, which is the most important action for the nurse to take?
- A. Force oral fluids
- B. Request a nutrition consult
- C. Initiate contact precautions
- D. Limit visitors to immediate family only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most important action for the nurse to take when a client has a positive MRSA and presents with a wound showing signs of infection is to initiate contact precautions. MRSA is highly contagious and placing the patient on contact precautions helps prevent the spread of the bacteria to others in the healthcare setting. (A) Forcing oral fluids will not directly address the MRSA infection. (B) Requesting a nutrition consult is not the priority in this situation. (D) Limiting visitors to immediate family only is not necessary as MRSA precautions are primarily focused on healthcare workers and close contacts who provide direct care.
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A nurse in the outpatient clinic is caring for a patient who has a magnesium level of 1.3 mg/dL. Which assessment would be most important for the nurse to make?
- A. Daily alcohol intake
- B. Intake of dietary protein
- C. Multivitamin/mineral use
- D. Use of over-the-counter (OTC) laxatives
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Daily alcohol intake. Hypomagnesemia is often associated with alcoholism, making it crucial for the nurse to assess the patient's alcohol consumption. Protein intake is not directly related to magnesium levels. The use of over-the-counter laxatives and multivitamin/mineral supplements would typically increase magnesium levels, which are not the focus when dealing with hypomagnesemia.
At 01:00 on a male client's second postoperative night, the client states he is unable to sleep and plans to read until feeling sleepy. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Leave the room and close the door to the client's room
- B. Assess the appearance of the client's surgical dressing
- C. Bring the client a prescribed PRN sedative-hypnotic
- D. Discuss symptoms of sleep deprivation with the client
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client has a plan to read until feeling sleepy, indicating an intention to sleep. Therefore, offering a PRN sedative-hypnotic (C) is unnecessary, especially since it is a stronger sleep aid. Option (D) is not needed as the client already has a plan to address his sleeplessness. Assessing the surgical dressing (B) is not relevant to the client's immediate need for sleep. Leaving the room and closing the door (A) is the appropriate action to provide a conducive environment for the client to rest.
A patient is admitted for hypovolemia associated with multiple draining wounds. Which assessment would be the most accurate way for the nurse to evaluate fluid balance?
- A. Skin turgor
- B. Daily weight
- C. Presence of edema
- D. Hourly urine output
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Daily weight is the most easily obtained and accurate means of assessing volume status. Skin turgor varies considerably with age and can be affected by various factors other than fluid balance. Presence of edema indicates excess fluid has moved into the interstitial space, which may not always be directly correlated with overall fluid balance. Hourly urine outputs, though important, do not provide a comprehensive picture of fluid balance as they do not consider fluid intake, insensible losses, or other sources of fluid loss.
A newly admitted patient is diagnosed with hyponatremia. When making room assignments, the charge nurse should take which action?
- A. Assign the patient to a room near the nurse's station.
- B. Place the patient in a room nearest to the water fountain.
- C. Place the patient on telemetry to monitor for peaked T waves.
- D. Assign the patient to a semi-private room and place an order for a low-salt diet.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The patient should be placed near the nurse's station if confused to allow close monitoring by the staff. To help improve serum sodium levels, water intake is restricted, so a patient with hyponatremia should not be placed near a water fountain. Peaked T waves are a sign of hyperkalemia, not hyponatremia, so telemetry for this purpose is unnecessary. Placing a confused patient in a semi-private room could be disruptive to the other patient. Additionally, the patient needs sodium replacement, not a low-salt diet.
An adult who has recurrent episodes of depression tells the nurse that the prescribed antidepressant needs to be discontinued because the client is feeling better after taking the medication for the past couple of weeks and does not like the side effects. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Remind the client that feeling better is the therapeutic effect of the medication.
- B. Inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication.
- C. Tell the client to discuss the medication side effects with the healthcare provider.
- D. Tell the client that the medication side effects will most likely diminish over time.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication. Abrupt cessation of antidepressants can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a recurrence of depressive symptoms. Choice A is not the best response as it does not address the need for a proper discontinuation plan. Choice C is not the best response as it focuses solely on the side effects and does not address the discontinuation process. Choice D is not the best response because while side effects may diminish over time, the focus here should be on the safe discontinuation of the medication to prevent adverse effects.