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The nurse assures the breastfeeding mother that she will know that her infant is getting an adequate supply of breast milk if the infant gains weight and:
- A. Rarely sucks on a pacifier.
- B. Ha several hard stools daily
- C. Voids 6 or more times a day
- D. Awakens to feed every 4 hours
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Voids 6 or more times a day. Adequate breast milk intake is indicated by frequent urination (6 or more times/day) in infants. This shows the infant is hydrated and receiving enough milk. The other choices are incorrect because A) pacifier use doesn't indicate milk supply, B) hard stools can be a sign of dehydration or other issues, and D) feeding every 4 hours is a general guideline but not a definitive indicator of milk supply.
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A client at 30 weeks' gestation is receiving corticosteroids. What is the primary purpose of this therapy?
- A. To prevent preterm labor.
- B. To enhance fetal lung maturity.
- C. To reduce maternal blood pressure.
- D. To lower blood glucose levels.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To enhance fetal lung maturity. Corticosteroids given to a client at 30 weeks' gestation help accelerate fetal lung maturation, reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. This therapy does not prevent preterm labor but rather prepares the baby's lungs for potential early delivery. It also does not directly impact maternal blood pressure or blood glucose levels. Therefore, the primary purpose of corticosteroid therapy in this scenario is to benefit the baby's lung development, making option B the correct choice.
The nurse is assessing a postpartum client. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Fundus firm and midline.
- B. Lochia rubra with large clots.
- C. Mild swelling in the perineal area.
- D. Breast tenderness on day 2 postpartum.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Lochia rubra with large clots could indicate excessive bleeding, which is a postpartum hemorrhage and requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. A: Fundus firm and midline is a normal finding. C: Mild swelling in the perineal area is expected after childbirth. D: Breast tenderness on day 2 postpartum is a common finding due to milk production starting.
According to the WHO, in 2022, what percentage of all new HIV infections occurred among persons AFAB?
- A. 46%
- B. 63%
- C. 10%
- D. 25%
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (46%). The term "AFAB" refers to "assigned female at birth." According to the WHO, around 46% of all new HIV infections in 2022 occurred among individuals assigned female at birth. This statistic highlights the disproportionate burden of HIV on this particular demographic. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the specific data provided by the WHO for new HIV infections among persons AFAB in 2022.
What component of a health history for a wellness exam includes information on lifestyle factors, such as diet, exercise habits, tobacco use, alcohol consumption, and recreational drug use?
- A. chief complaint/reason for visit
- B. gynecologic history
- C. medications and supplements
- D. social history
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: social history. This component of a health history focuses on lifestyle factors that can impact a person's overall health and well-being. It includes information on diet, exercise habits, tobacco use, alcohol consumption, and recreational drug use. By understanding these factors, healthcare providers can assess potential risks, provide appropriate counseling, and tailor interventions to promote health.
A: Chief complaint/reason for visit is not the correct answer as it pertains to the specific reason why the patient is seeking medical attention.
B: Gynecologic history is focused on a specific aspect of health related to female reproductive health and is not inclusive of overall lifestyle factors.
C: Medications and supplements focus on the use of medications and supplements and do not cover lifestyle factors such as exercise habits or recreational drug use.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an epidural block with an opioid analgesic. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Hypnosis
- B. Polyuria
- C. Bilateral crackles
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bilateral crackles. When a client is receiving an opioid analgesic via an epidural block, a potential adverse effect is respiratory depression, leading to the accumulation of fluid in the lungs and the development of bilateral crackles upon auscultation. Hypnosis (choice A) is not typically associated with opioid analgesics. Polyuria (choice B) is not a common side effect of opioids or epidural blocks. Hyperglycemia (choice D) is not a direct adverse effect of opioid analgesics administered through an epidural block. Monitoring for bilateral crackles is crucial to detect and address respiratory depression promptly.