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While interviewing an older female patient of Asian descent, the nurse notices that the patient looks at the ground when answering questions. What should the nurse do?
- A. Consider cultural differences during this assessment.
- B. Ask the patient to make eye contact to determine her affect.
- C. Continue with the interview and document that the patient is depressed.
- D. Notify the health care provider to recommend a psychological evaluation.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Recognize cultural differences in communication styles. In many Asian cultures, avoiding direct eye contact is a sign of respect, humility, or shyness.
Step 2: Understand that the patient's behavior may not indicate depression but rather a cultural norm.
Step 3: Adjust communication approach by respecting the patient's cultural preferences.
Step 4: Building trust and rapport by acknowledging and accommodating cultural differences.
Summary: Choice A is correct as it acknowledges and respects cultural differences. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not consider cultural aspects and may lead to misinterpretation and inappropriate actions.
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When caring for Mr. Reyes, the nurse should assess for
- A. Decreased carotid pulses
- B. Altered level of consciousness
- C. Bleeding from oral cavity
- D. Absence of deep tendon-reflexes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Altered level of consciousness, because it is a critical assessment in determining Mr. Reyes's neurological status and overall well-being. Assessing for altered level of consciousness helps identify potential neurological issues, such as brain injury or stroke, which require immediate intervention.
A: Decreased carotid pulses - This is related to cardiovascular assessment, not specific to Mr. Reyes's neurological status.
C: Bleeding from oral cavity - While important to assess for, it is not directly related to Mr. Reyes's neurological status.
D: Absence of deep tendon-reflexes - This is a specific neurological assessment, but altered level of consciousness takes priority in this scenario.
The nurse is providing dietary instructions to a client with hypoglycemia. To control hypoglycemic episodes, the nurse should recommend:
- A. increasing saturated fat intake and fasting in the afternoon.
- B. increasing intake of vitamins B and D and taking iron supplements.
- C. eating a candy bar if light-headedness occurs.
- D. consuming a low-carbohydrate, high-protein diet and avoiding fasting.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a low-carbohydrate, high-protein diet helps stabilize blood sugar levels and prevents hypoglycemic episodes. Carbohydrates cause rapid spikes and drops in blood sugar, while protein helps maintain stable levels. Avoiding fasting also helps regulate blood sugar. Choice A is incorrect as increasing saturated fat and fasting can worsen hypoglycemia. Choice B is incorrect as vitamins and iron do not directly address hypoglycemia. Choice C is incorrect as relying on sugary foods like candy bars can lead to further blood sugar imbalances.
A patient has allergic rhinitis. In planning care for the patient, the nurse understands that if the patient does not remain compliant with the treatment regimen, the patient is at risk for developing which of the following?
- A. Sinusitis
- B. Lymphadenopathy
- C. Anaphylaxis
- D. Angioedema
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sinusitis. Allergic rhinitis causes inflammation in the nasal passages, leading to congestion and blockage of the sinuses. If the patient does not comply with the treatment regimen, the inflammation can worsen, increasing the risk of developing sinusitis, which is an infection or inflammation of the sinuses. Sinusitis can result in severe pain, pressure, and potentially lead to complications.
Summary of other choices:
B: Lymphadenopathy - Enlargement of lymph nodes, not directly related to non-compliance with treatment for allergic rhinitis.
C: Anaphylaxis - Life-threatening allergic reaction, not a typical consequence of non-compliance with treatment for allergic rhinitis.
D: Angioedema - Swelling of deeper layers of skin, usually associated with allergies but not a common outcome of non-compliance with treatment for allergic rhinitis.
The nurse is reviewing a patient’s database for significant changes and discovers that the patient has not voided in over 8 hours. The patient’s kidney function lab results are abnormal, and the patient’s oral intake has significantly decreased since previous shifts. Which step of the nursing process should the nurse proceed to after this review?
- A. Diagnosis
- B. Planning NursingStoreRN
- C. Implementation
- D. Evaluation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diagnosis. After reviewing the patient's database and identifying concerning findings such as abnormal kidney function, lack of voiding, and decreased oral intake, the nurse needs to move to the diagnosis step of the nursing process. This involves analyzing the data collected to identify the patient's health problems and risks. In this case, the nurse needs to determine potential underlying issues related to the kidney function abnormalities and lack of voiding, and formulate a nursing diagnosis based on the findings.
Summary of other choices:
B: Planning comes after diagnosis and involves setting goals and creating a plan of care.
C: Implementation follows planning and involves carrying out the plan of care.
D: Evaluation is the final step of the nursing process where the nurse assesses the effectiveness of the interventions implemented.
A client who underwent litholapaxy surgery for removing bladder stones wants to know how long the urethral catheter needs to stay in place. Which of the ff is the correct response?
- A. The catheter should remain in place for 7 days
- B. The catheter should remain in place for 1-2 days
- C. The catheter should remain in place for 2-3 days
- D. The catheter should remain in place for 3-4 days
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The catheter should remain in place for 1-2 days. After litholapaxy surgery, the urethral catheter is typically removed within 1-2 days to prevent infection and promote healing. Keeping the catheter in place for too long can increase the risk of complications such as urinary tract infections. Options A, C, and D suggest longer durations which are not necessary and may lead to unnecessary discomfort and risks for the client. Therefore, the optimal timeframe for catheter removal post-litholapaxy surgery is within 1-2 days.