The client with peripheral artery disease has been prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix). The nurse understands that more teaching is necessary when the client states which of the following?
- A. I should not be surprised if I bruise more easily or if my gums bleed a little when brushing my teeth.
- B. It is important to take this medicine with food to enhance its effectiveness and minimize stomach upset.
- C. I should stop taking Plavix if it makes me feel weak and dizzy.
- D. The doctor prescribed this medicine to make my platelets less likely to stick together and help prevent clots from forming.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Weakness, dizziness, and headache are common adverse effects of Plavix and should be reported. It is essential to consult a physician before stopping Plavix as it plays a crucial role in preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is a common side effect of Plavix and does not indicate a need for further teaching. Choice B is incorrect because taking Plavix with or without food can affect its absorption and effectiveness. Choice D correctly explains the purpose of prescribing Plavix to prevent clot formation.
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Which of the following is the most important nursing action when administering a blood transfusion?
- A. Monitoring the patient's blood pressure.
- B. Monitoring the patient's temperature.
- C. Monitoring the patient's heart rate.
- D. Monitoring the patient's oxygen saturation.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most important nursing action when administering a blood transfusion is monitoring the patient's blood pressure. This is crucial because monitoring blood pressure allows for the prompt identification of any signs of adverse transfusion reactions, such as transfusion reactions or fluid overload. Immediate intervention can be initiated if any complications arise. While monitoring temperature, heart rate, and oxygen saturation are also essential aspects of patient care, they are not as critical as blood pressure monitoring during a blood transfusion. Therefore, the correct answer is to monitor the patient's blood pressure.
The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following findings would indicate that the client is experiencing a complication of the treatment?
- A. Clear dialysate outflow.
- B. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
- C. Increased heart rate.
- D. Fatigue.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg during hemodialysis may indicate fluid overload or an ineffective dialysis session, which can lead to complications such as heart failure or pulmonary edema. This finding should be reported promptly for further evaluation and intervention. Clear dialysate outflow is a normal and expected finding during hemodialysis, indicating proper filtration of waste products. Increased heart rate can be a normal compensatory response to hemodialysis due to fluid shifts and should be monitored but does not necessarily indicate a complication. Fatigue is a common symptom in clients with chronic renal failure undergoing hemodialysis and is not specific to complications of the treatment.
When assessing an individual with peripheral vascular disease, which clinical manifestation would indicate complete arterial obstruction in the lower left leg?
- A. Aching pain in the left calf.
- B. Burning pain in the left calf.
- C. Numbness and tingling in the left leg.
- D. Coldness of the left foot and ankle.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Coldness of the left foot and ankle is the correct clinical manifestation indicating complete arterial obstruction in the lower left leg. Complete arterial obstruction results in reduced blood flow, leading to decreased temperature in the affected area. Aching pain (Choice A) and burning pain (Choice B) are more commonly associated with partial obstructions or ischemia, while numbness and tingling (Choice C) can be indicative of nerve involvement or compromised circulation, but not specifically complete arterial obstruction. The coldness in the foot and ankle is a result of severely reduced blood flow, which impairs the delivery of oxygen and nutrients to the tissues in that area, leading to a lower temperature. This symptom is a critical indicator of a more severe blockage compared to the other options provided.
The adult client admitted to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) following abdominal surgery has a tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.8°C), a pulse rate of 88 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 94/64 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Take the client's temperature using another method.
- B. Raise the head of the bed to 60 to 90 degrees.
- C. Ask the client to cough and deep breathe.
- D. Check the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Taking the client's temperature using another method is the most appropriate action in this situation. A tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.8°C) is abnormally low and may not reflect the true core body temperature accurately. By using an alternative method, such as oral or rectal temperature measurement, the nurse can obtain a more reliable temperature reading. Raising the head of the bed (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing the low temperature. Asking the client to cough and deep breathe (Choice C) may be beneficial for respiratory function but does not address the temperature concern. Checking the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour (Choice D) is not the priority when the initial focus should be on accurate temperature assessment.
What is the most common side effect of diuretics such as furosemide (Lasix)?
- A. Hypokalemia.
- B. Hyperkalemia.
- C. Hypernatremia.
- D. Hyponatremia.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypokalemia.' Diuretics like furosemide increase the excretion of potassium, leading to hypokalemia as a common side effect. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is the opposite condition characterized by high potassium levels, which is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypernatremia (choice C) is increased sodium levels, while hyponatremia (choice D) is decreased sodium levels, neither of which are the most common side effects of furosemide. Therefore, choice A is the best answer.