Nokea
A patient who is older than 35 years may have difficulty achieving pregnancy because
- A. prepregnancy medical attention is lacking.
- B. personal risk behaviors influence fertility.
- C. contraceptives have been used for an extended period of time.
- D. the ovaries may be affected by the normal aging process.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: As women age, their ovarian reserve decreases and the quality of their eggs declines, making it more difficult to conceive. This is due to the normal aging process of the ovaries, which can lead to decreased fertility and an increased risk of chromosomal abnormalities in the embryos. Therefore, a patient who is older than 35 years may have difficulty achieving pregnancy because the ovaries may be affected by the normal aging process.
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The nurse is monitoring a pregnant client with severe preeclampsia. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg.
- B. Urine output of 30 mL/hr.
- C. Complaints of headache and blurred vision.
- D. Weight gain of 1 pound in one week.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Headache and blurred vision are signs of worsening preeclampsia, indicating potential eclampsia.
A pregnant woman tells the nurse-midwife, 'I've heard that if I eat certain foods during my pregnancy, the baby will be a boy.' The nurse-midwife should explain that this is a myth, and that the sex of the baby is determined at what time?
- A. At the time of ejaculation
- B. At the time of fertilization
- C. At the time of implantation
- D. At the time of differentiation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The sex of a baby is determined at fertilization. Sperm cells carry either an X or Y chromosome, while the ovum only carries an X chromosome. If the sperm contributes an X chromosome, the baby will be female, and if it contributes a Y chromosome, the baby will be male.
Which of the following serve as maternal risk factors juice to having a baby who may suffer from birth trauma?
- A. Take her supplement after a meal Select all that apply.
- B. Take her supplement with full glass of tea
- C. Term delivery
- D. Scheduled cesarean delivery
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Scheduled cesarean delivery serves as a maternal risk factor juice to having a baby who may suffer from birth trauma. Cesarean deliveries, especially scheduled ones without a medical indication, can increase the risk of birth trauma for the baby compared to a vaginal delivery. Birth trauma in infants can include injuries like bruises, fractures, and head trauma due to various factors during the delivery process. It is important to weigh the risks and benefits of delivery methods in consultation with healthcare providers to minimize the chances of birth trauma.
A pregnant client asks about the purpose of an ultrasound at 20 weeks' gestation. What is the best response?
- A. To confirm pregnancy viability.
- B. To check for genetic abnormalities.
- C. To assess fetal anatomy and growth.
- D. To determine the sex of the baby.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The 20-week ultrasound is primarily for assessing fetal anatomy, growth, and development.
Which order should the nurse implement first?
- A. Give 1L LR IV (VS indicate hypovolemia from dehydration,
- B. LR will reestablish vascular volume and bring BP up)
- C. Weigh the client
- D. Administer Maalox orally
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct order of implementation in this scenario should focus on addressing the immediate physiological needs of the patient. The vital signs indicating hypovolemia from dehydration require prompt action to stabilize the patient's condition. Giving 1L of LR IV will help reestablish vascular volume, improve blood pressure, and address the underlying issue of dehydration. By addressing the hypovolemia first, the nurse can effectively start the process of stabilizing the patient before moving on to other interventions such as weighing the client, administering Maalox orally, or encouraging liquid intake.