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While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?
- A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
- B. How active is your current sex life?
- C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
- D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Option A is the best response as it directly addresses the client's concern about the reduction in sexual drive caused by the medication. It encourages the client to express their thoughts and feelings about how this side effect may impact their current sexual activity, facilitating open communication and understanding between the nurse and the client. Choices B, C, and D are not as appropriate as they do not directly address the client's immediate concern regarding the impact of the medication on their sexual drive.
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The UAPs working on a chronic neuro unit ask the nurse to help them determine the safest way to transfer an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair. What method describes the correct transfer procedure for this client?
- A. Place the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side before moving.
- B. Assist the client to a standing position, then place the right hand on the armrest.
- C. Have the client place the left foot next to the chair and pivot to the left before sitting.
- D. Move the chair parallel to the right side of the bed, and stand the client on the right foot.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct transfer procedure for an elderly client with left-sided weakness involves moving the chair parallel to the right side of the bed and standing the client on the right foot. Using the stronger side, the right side, for weight-bearing during the transfer is the safest approach to prevent falls or injuries. Placing the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side before moving can lead to poor body mechanics and increase the risk of accidents. Assisting the client to a standing position and having the client pivot to the left are not recommended for a client with left-sided weakness as it can compromise safety and stability during the transfer.
The healthcare provider who is preparing to give an adolescent client a prescribed antipsychotic medication notes that parental consent has not been obtained. Which action should the provider take?
- A. Review the chart for a signed consent for medication administration.
- B. Obtain parental consent before giving the medication.
- C. Do not give the medication and document the reason.
- D. Complete an incident report and notify the adolescent.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action is for the provider not to administer the medication and to document the reason. In the case of a minor, parental consent is required for medical treatment, including medication administration. It is important to follow legal and ethical guidelines to ensure the adolescent's well-being and rights are protected. Choice A is incorrect because simply reviewing the chart does not address the lack of parental consent. Choice B is incorrect as obtaining parental consent should be done before medication administration. Choice D is incorrect as notifying the adolescent is not the appropriate action in this situation, as parental consent is legally required for a minor's medical treatment.
The healthcare professional observes a UAP taking a client's blood pressure in the lower extremity. Which observation of this procedure requires the healthcare professional's intervention?
- A. The cuff wraps around the girth of the leg.
- B. The UAP auscultates the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg.
- C. The client is placed in a prone position.
- D. The systolic reading is 20 mm Hg higher than the blood pressure in the client's arm.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When obtaining blood pressure in the lower extremities, the popliteal pulse is the site for auscultation when the blood pressure cuff is applied around the thigh. Auscultating the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg is incorrect as it may lead to an inaccurate reading. Placing the client in a prone position and wrapping the cuff around the girth of the leg are acceptable practices. A systolic reading that is 20 mm Hg higher in the lower extremity compared to the arm is expected due to the difference in blood pressure between the upper and lower parts of the body.
Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include when teaching a client with limited mobility strategies to prevent venous thrombosis?
- A. Perform cough and deep breathing exercises hourly.
- B. Turn from side to side in bed at least every 2 hours.
- C. Dorsiflex and plantarflex the feet 10 times each hour.
- D. Drink approximately 4 ounces of water every hour.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most crucial instruction for a client with limited mobility to prevent venous thrombosis is to perform dorsiflexion and plantarflexion of the feet 10 times each hour. These exercises help promote venous return, reducing the risk of thrombosis by preventing blood stasis in the lower extremities. While other measures like turning in bed and staying hydrated are beneficial, promoting venous return through foot exercises is the priority in preventing venous thrombosis in clients with limited mobility. Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion directly target the calf muscle pump, aiding in the circulation of blood back to the heart and preventing clot formation. The other options, such as cough and deep breathing exercises, turning in bed, and hydration, are important for overall health but do not directly address venous stasis and thrombosis prevention in the same way as foot exercises.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
- B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- C. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe.
- D. Position the client in high Fowler's position.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (B) is the priority intervention for a client with COPD exacerbation to improve oxygenation. In COPD exacerbation, there is impaired gas exchange leading to hypoxemia, making oxygen therapy the initial priority. Administering bronchodilators (A) helps with bronchodilation but should come after ensuring adequate oxygenation. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing (C) and positioning the client in high Fowler's position (D) are also beneficial interventions, but the first step is to address the oxygenation needs of the client.