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While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?
- A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
- B. How active is your current sex life?
- C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
- D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Option A is the best response as it directly addresses the client's concern about the reduction in sexual drive caused by the medication. It encourages the client to express their thoughts and feelings about how this side effect may impact their current sexual activity, facilitating open communication and understanding between the nurse and the client. Choices B, C, and D are not as appropriate as they do not directly address the client's immediate concern regarding the impact of the medication on their sexual drive.
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After surgery, a client who had a colostomy says 'I know the doctor did not really do a colostomy'. The nurse understands that the client is in an early stage of adjustment to the diagnosis or surgery. What nursing action is indicated at this time?
- A. Agree with the client until they are ready to accept the colostomy.
- B. Say 'It must be difficult to have this kind of surgery'.
- C. Force the client to look at their colostomy.
- D. Ask the surgeon to explain the surgery to the client.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acknowledging the client's feelings with empathy is essential in the early stage of adjustment to a colostomy surgery. By saying 'It must be difficult to have this kind of surgery,' the nurse validates the client's emotions and opens up a channel for further communication. Choice A is incorrect because agreeing with the client's denial is not therapeutic and may hinder acceptance. Choice C is inappropriate as it disregards the client's emotional state and autonomy. Choice D involves the surgeon and is not the nurse's role in addressing the client's emotional needs.
The healthcare professional counts an adult's apical heartbeat at 110 beats per minute. The healthcare professional describes this as:
- A. Asystole
- B. Bigeminy
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tachycardia is a heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute. In this case, an adult's heart rate of 110 beats per minute falls within the range of tachycardia. Tachycardia can be a common physiological response to various stresses on the body, leading to an increased heart rate. Asystole refers to the absence of cardiac activity, bigeminy is a specific heart rhythm pattern, and bradycardia is a heart rate below 60 beats per minute in adults.
Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?
- A. Use an ophthalmoscope to observe the client's pupil constriction when a strong light is shone on it.
- B. Stand behind the client and direct the client to report when an object enters the peripheral field of vision.
- C. Display a series of four cards with printing of varying sizes to the client and ask which card the client sees most clearly.
- D. Sit facing the client, look directly at the client's face, and move an object inward from the periphery.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.
When entering the room of an adult male, the nurse finds that the client is very anxious. Before providing care, what action should the nurse take first?
- A. Divert the client's attention
- B. Call for additional help from staff
- C. Document the planned action
- D. Re-assess the client's situation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Before providing care to an anxious client, it is crucial for the nurse to first re-assess the client's situation. By re-assessing, the nurse can understand the underlying cause of the client's anxiety, which will help in tailoring appropriate care interventions. Re-assessment ensures that care provided is individualized and addresses the client's specific needs, promoting effective and client-centered care delivery. Diverting the client's attention (Choice A) may not address the root cause of the anxiety. Calling for additional help (Choice B) may be necessary in some situations but should not be the first action. Documenting the planned action (Choice C) should come after re-assessing the client's situation to ensure accurate documentation based on the current assessment.
Which instruction should be included in the discharge teaching plan for an adult client with hypernatremia?
- A. Monitor daily urine output volume
- B. Drink plenty of water whenever thirsty
- C. Use salt tablets for sodium content
- D. Review food labels for sodium content
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In hypernatremia, there is an excess of sodium in the blood. Reviewing food labels for sodium content is crucial as it helps the client identify and avoid high-sodium foods, which can contribute to elevated sodium levels. Monitoring urine output volume may be important for other conditions but is not directly related to managing hypernatremia. Drinking water whenever thirsty is generally good advice for staying hydrated but does not specifically address the issue of high sodium levels. Using salt tablets would worsen hypernatremia by further increasing sodium intake.