While the nurse is assessing the client, the client says, “I had an endovascular repair of an AAA that was found 1 month ago during a routine physical.” The nurse’s assessment of the client should be based on understanding that this procedure involves which action?
- A. Excision to remove the aneurysm and place a graft percutaneously
- B. An angioplasty with placement of a stent around the outside of the aorta
- C. Placement of a filter within the aneurysm to block clots from becoming emboli
- D. Placement of a stent graft inside the aorta that excludes the aneurysm from circulation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The endovascular repair consists of placement of the endovascular stent graft inside the aorta, extending above and below the aneurysmal area to seal it off from the circulation. Excision, external stents, and filters are not involved.
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The client with atrial flutter is receiving a continuous infusion of 25,000 units of heparin in 500 mL of 5% dextrose at a rate of 12 mL per hour. The a PTT laboratory result is 92 seconds. According to the heparin infusion protocol, the nurse should administer the heparin infusion at a rate of how many mL per hour?
Correct Answer: 11
Rationale: According to the protocol, with an aPTT value of 92 seconds, the rate should be decreased by 1 mL per hour. If the infusion was previously infusing at 12 mL per hour, the new rate is 11 mL/hr.
The client who has pain while walking has an ankle-brachial index (ABI) test. Results show that the client has ratios of 1.4 and 1.3 bilaterally. Based on these results, which should be the nurse’s conclusion?
- A. The client likely has peripheral arterial disease (PAD).
- B. Ticlopidine hydrochloride should be prescribed.
- C. The client’s pain is most likely psychological in origin.
- D. Medical follow-up is needed to determine the cause of pain.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client requires further medical consultation because the ABI (comparison of BP in ankle to the brachial BP) is normal in each leg (1.4 and 1.3; normal is 0.9-1.3). A ratio <0.9 indicates PAD. Ticlopidine is inappropriate, and psychological pain is not supported without further evidence.
The client is admitted with an ACS. Which should be the nurse’s priority assessment?
- A. Pain
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Heart rate
- D. Respiratory rate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse’s priority assessment in ACS is the client’s pain; pain indicates that the heart is not receiving adequate oxygen and blood flow (perfusion). BP, HR, and RR are secondary as they stem from the lack of perfusion.
The nurse is caring for the client following a coronary artery bypass graft. Which assessment finding in the immediate postoperative period should be most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Copious chest tube output; now none for 1 hour
- B. Current core temperature of 101.3°F (38.5°C)
- C. pH 7.32; Paco2 48; HCO3 28; Pao2 80
- D. Urine output 160 mL in the last 4 hours
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A copiously draining chest tube that is no longer draining indicates an obstruction. It should be most concerning because there is an increased risk for cardiac tamponade or pleural effusion. Slight fever, compensated respiratory acidosis, and adequate urine output are less urgent.
The client with chronic HF tells the nurse, “I get so scared at night; I wake up and feel like I can hardly breathe.” Which is the nurse’s best response?
- A. “You are experiencing a condition called paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.”
- B. “Tell me if these are related to your having vivid nightmares?”
- C. “You may be experiencing this from an increased sodium intake in your diet.”
- D. “Tell me more about how often this is occurring and how you deal with it.”
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When the client with HF expresses concerns about breathing, the nurse should further explore the comment with an open-ended statement because more information may be gained about how the client could diminish or handle the occurrence. Naming the condition (A), assuming nightmares (B), or sodium intake (C) does not facilitate further assessment.