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The nurse is using presence to reduce the anxiety of a critically ill patient. What nursing behavior demonstrates an effective use of presence?
- A. Staying in the patients room to complete documentation
- B. Having a conversation in the patients room that excludes the patient
- C. Maintaining eye contact with the patient during explanations
- D. Focusing on specific nursing care tasks while in the patients room
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because maintaining eye contact with the patient during explanations is a non-verbal way to show attentiveness and empathy, which can help reduce the patient's anxiety. This behavior demonstrates active listening and engagement, making the patient feel heard and understood.
A: Staying in the patient's room to complete documentation is not an effective use of presence as it does not involve direct interaction with the patient.
B: Having a conversation in the patient's room that excludes the patient is also not an effective use of presence as it does not involve engaging with the patient.
D: Focusing on specific nursing care tasks while in the patient's room, although important, may not necessarily demonstrate presence in reducing the patient's anxiety.
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When caring for a patient with a pulmonary artery (PA) pressure catheter, the nurse observes that the PA waveform indicates that the catheter is in the wedged position. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Zero balance the transducer.
- B. Activate the fast flush system.
- C. Notify the health care provider.
- D. Deflate and reinflate the PA balloon.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Notify the health care provider. When the PA waveform indicates the catheter is in the wedged position, it means the catheter tip is in the pulmonary artery, potentially causing complications. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately to assess and reposition the catheter to prevent further issues. Zero balancing the transducer (A) or activating the fast flush system (B) are not appropriate actions for this situation. Deflating and reinflating the PA balloon (D) could exacerbate the issue and should only be done under the guidance of the healthcare provider.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is being evaluated clianbiircba.clolmy/ tfeostr brain death by a primary care provider. Which assessment findings by the nurse sup port brain death?
- A. Absence of a corneal reflex
- B. Unequal, reactive pupils
- C. Withdrawal from painful stimuli
- D. Core temperature of 100.8° F
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, absence of a corneal reflex, because in brain death, all brainstem reflexes, including the corneal reflex, are absent. This indicates complete loss of brain function. Choice B, unequal reactive pupils, is incorrect as it suggests some level of brainstem function. Choice C, withdrawal from painful stimuli, is also incorrect as it is a spinal reflex and can occur even in the absence of brain function. Choice D, core temperature of 100.8° F, is irrelevant to assessing brain death.
Which statement is true regarding venous thromboembolisambir b(.VcoTm/Ete)s ta nd pulmonary embolus (PE)?
- A. PE should be suspected in any patient who has unexpla ined cardiorespiratory complaints and risk factors for VTE.
- B. Bradycardia and hyperventilation are classic symptom s of PE.
- C. Dyspnea, chest pain, and hemoptysis occur in nearly a ll patients with PE.
- D. Most critically ill patients are at low risk for VTE and PE and do not require prophylaxis.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because PE should be suspected in patients with unexplained cardiorespiratory complaints and risk factors for VTE. This is important because PE can present with nonspecific symptoms, making it crucial to consider it in the differential diagnosis.
Explanation:
1. PE can present with various symptoms, including dyspnea, chest pain, and hemoptysis, but these are not present in all patients.
2. Bradycardia and hyperventilation are not classic symptoms of PE, as it can present with tachycardia and other respiratory findings.
3. Critically ill patients are actually at higher risk for VTE and PE, so prophylaxis is typically recommended.
In summary, choice A is correct because it emphasizes the importance of considering PE in patients with cardiorespiratory complaints and risk factors for VTE, while the other choices contain inaccuracies or incomplete information.
When monitoring the effectiveness of treatment for a patient with a large anterior wall myocardial infarction, the most important information for the nurse to obtain is:
- A. Central venous pressure (CVP).
- B. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR).
- C. Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR).
- D. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP). This is crucial in monitoring a patient with a large anterior wall myocardial infarction as it provides information on left ventricular function and fluid status. A high PAWP may indicate left ventricular failure or fluid overload, requiring immediate intervention.
A: Central venous pressure (CVP) is not as specific for assessing left ventricular function and may not provide accurate information in this scenario.
B: Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is important in assessing systemic blood flow, but it may not directly indicate left ventricular function in this case.
C: Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) is more relevant in conditions affecting the pulmonary circulation and may not be as immediately informative in assessing left ventricular function in this context.
The nurse is caring for a patient with a pulmonary artery catheter. Assessment findings include a blood pressure of 85/40 mm Hg, heart rate of 12 5 beats/min, respiratory rate 35 breaths/min, and arterial oxygen saturation (SpO ) of 90% on a 50% venturi mask. 2 Hemodynamic values include a cardiac output (CO) of 1.0 L/min, central venous pressure (CVP) of 1 mm Hg, and a pulmonary artery occlusion pres sure (PAOP) of 3 mm Hg. The nurse questions which of the following primary health care provider’s order?
- A. Titrate supplemental oxygen to achieve a SpO > 94%a. birb.com/test
- B. Infuse 500 mL 0.9% normal saline over 1 hour.
- C. Obtain arterial blood gas and serum electrolytes.
- D. Administer furosemide 20 mg intravenously.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer furosemide 20 mg intravenously. In this scenario, the patient is hypotensive with a low cardiac output, low CVP, and low PAOP, indicating cardiogenic shock. Administering furosemide, a diuretic, can worsen the patient's condition by further decreasing preload. This can lead to a decrease in cardiac output and exacerbate the shock state. The other options are more appropriate:
A: Titrate supplemental oxygen to achieve a SpO > 94% - Correct, as improving oxygenation is essential in cardiogenic shock.
B: Infuse 500 mL 0.9% normal saline over 1 hour - Correct, as fluid resuscitation may be necessary to improve perfusion.
C: Obtain arterial blood gas and serum electrolytes - Correct, as these tests provide valuable information about the patient's oxygenation and electrolyte balance.