Nokea
Why did the risk of acquiring disease decrease for people living in cities since the 1850's?
- A. The 'sanitation revolution' improved the water supplies
- B. Urban residents received more regular vaccinations
- C. Antibiotics were more readily used
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The sanitation revolution, along with vaccinations and antibiotics, collectively reduced disease risk in cities since the 1850s.
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A 28-year-old female client was admitted 3 days ago after she ran nude through the streets, shouting that she was the 'Queen of Hearts.' The client has remained delusional since admission. An initial expected outcome would be that the client will:
- A. Allow the nurse to logically dispute the delusion
- B. Distinguish external boundaries
- C. Engage in reality-oriented conversation
- D. Explain why she thinks she is the 'Queen of Hearts'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Engage in reality-oriented conversation. This is the most appropriate initial expected outcome because it focuses on helping the client ground herself in reality. Engaging in reality-oriented conversation can help the client understand and acknowledge her delusions, leading to potential insight and eventual treatment.
A: Allowing the nurse to logically dispute the delusion may not be effective initially as the client may not be receptive to this approach during the acute phase of her delusion.
B: Distinguishing external boundaries may not address the underlying delusional beliefs and may not be the most immediate concern.
D: Explaining why she thinks she is the 'Queen of Hearts' may reinforce the delusion rather than challenging it.
Which stage of Piaget's theory marks the onset of logical thinking?
- A. Sensorimotor
- B. Preoperational
- C. Concrete Operational
- D. Formal Operational
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Concrete Operational stage (C), around age 7-11, marks the onset of logical thinking about concrete events, per Piaget's theory. Earlier stages (A, B) lack this, and Formal Operational (D) involves abstract logic later.
A 79-year-old white male tells a nurse, 'I have felt very sad lately. I do not have much to live for. My family and friends are all dead, and my own health is failing.' The nurse should analyze this comment as
- A. normal pessimism of the elderly.
- B. evidence of risks for suicide.
- C. a call for sympathy.
- D. normal grieving.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: evidence of risks for suicide. The elderly man's statement indicates feelings of hopelessness, loneliness, and lack of purpose, which are common risk factors for suicide in older adults. The nurse should assess further for suicidal ideation and intervene accordingly.
Choice A is incorrect because the statement goes beyond normal pessimism by expressing thoughts of not having much to live for. Choice C is incorrect as the statement is more indicative of distress rather than a mere call for sympathy. Choice D is incorrect as normal grieving typically involves processing emotions related to a specific loss, whereas the man's statement reflects a broader sense of despair.
A 27-year-old woman diagnosed with borderline personality disorder displays a labile affect, impulsivity, frequent angry outbursts, and difficulty tolerating her angry feelings without self-injury. A priority nursing diagnosis for this client is:
- A. Anxiety
- B. Risk for self-mutilation
- C. Risk for other-directed violence
- D. Ineffective coping
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Risk for self-mutilation. This is the priority nursing diagnosis because the client is displaying behaviors such as self-injury due to difficulty tolerating angry feelings. Self-mutilation poses an immediate risk to the client's safety and requires immediate intervention. The other choices are incorrect because anxiety (A) is a common symptom of borderline personality disorder but not the priority in this case. Risk for other-directed violence (C) is not indicated as the client is primarily harming themselves. Ineffective coping (D) is a broad diagnosis that does not address the immediate risk of self-mutilation.
Which of the following should the nurse use as a basis for explaining the etiology of Alzheimer's disease to the family of a client with this disease?
- A. It is a secondary dementia indicated by loss of recent memory and disorientation to time and place.
- B. It is a primary dementia that is incurable, irreversible, and fatal. It is caused by the presence of a beta-amyloid protein in the neurons resulting in senile plaques.
- C. It is a secondary dementia that is treatable with analysis of the diet and removal of toxic substances from the diet and environment.
- D. It is a primary dementia characterized by stepwise decreases in cognitive abilities. It is irreversible but treatable with antihypertensive medications.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Alzheimer's disease is a primary dementia that is characterized by the presence of beta-amyloid protein in neurons leading to the formation of senile plaques. This explanation is accurate as it describes the key pathological process underlying Alzheimer's disease.
Choice A is incorrect because Alzheimer's disease is a primary dementia, not a secondary dementia. Choice C is incorrect because the etiology of Alzheimer's disease is not related to diet or toxic substances, so it is not treatable in that way. Choice D is incorrect because while Alzheimer's disease is irreversible, it is not treatable with antihypertensive medications as these medications are not effective in managing the disease process of Alzheimer's.