Nokea
Why is it often necessary to draw a complete blood count and differential (CBC/differential) when a client is being treated with an antiepileptic drug (AED)?
- A. The hematocrit is adversely affected due to increased vascular volume.
- B. AEDs can lead to blood dyscrasia as a side effect.
- C. AEDs may cause aplastic anemia and megaloblastic anemia.
- D. Some AEDs induce white blood cell reduction.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a client is being treated with antiepileptic drugs (AEDs), it is essential to monitor for potential side effects on blood parameters. Some AEDs can lead to blood dyscrasia, which includes conditions like aplastic anemia and megaloblastic anemia. Therefore, drawing a complete blood count and differential helps in identifying these adverse effects early. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary concern when monitoring blood parameters in clients on AEDs is the risk of blood dyscrasia, not changes in hematocrit due to vascular volume, white blood cell reduction, or immune modulation.
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The client is admitted to the hospital following a motor vehicle accident and has sustained a closed chest wound. Which assessment finding is consistent with a flail chest?
- A. Biot's respirations
- B. Sucking sounds during respirations
- C. Paradoxical chest wall movement
- D. Hypotension and bradycardia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct assessment finding consistent with a flail chest is paradoxical chest wall movement. This occurs when a segment of the chest wall moves in the opposite direction to the rest of the chest during respiration. Biot's respirations (Choice A) are a pattern of breathing characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by regular or irregular periods of apnea. Sucking sounds during respirations (Choice B) may indicate air entering or leaving the chest cavity through a wound. Hypotension and bradycardia (Choice D) may be present due to other factors such as shock, but they are not specific to a flail chest.
The nurse is caring for a client and wants to assess the neurologic function. Which of the following will give the most information?
- A. Level of consciousness
- B. Doll's eye reflex
- C. Babinski reflex
- D. Reaction to painful stimuli
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Level of consciousness.' Assessing the client's level of consciousness provides crucial information about their neurologic function, including subtle changes in verbal ability, orientation, and responsiveness to commands. Doll's eye reflex is a specific eye movement test used in neurologic assessments but may not provide as much comprehensive information as the client's overall consciousness level. The Babinski reflex is a test used to assess specific spinal cord function rather than overall neurologic function. Reaction to painful stimuli provides information about sensory function and pain response but may not offer as much insight into the client's neurologic status as assessing their level of consciousness.
Which hormone is responsible for amenorrhea in the pregnant woman?
- A. Progesterone
- B. Estrogen
- C. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
- D. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct! Progesterone is the hormone responsible for amenorrhea in pregnant women. Progesterone plays a crucial role in maintaining the uterine lining for implantation and supporting early pregnancy. High levels of progesterone during pregnancy suppress the normal menstrual cycle, leading to amenorrhea. Estrogen, FSH, and hCG do not directly cause amenorrhea in pregnant women. Estrogen is involved in the development of female secondary sexual characteristics, FSH is involved in the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles, and hCG is produced by the placenta to support the production of progesterone during pregnancy.
The nurse is caring for a client complaining of intense headaches with increasing pain for the past one month. An MRI is ordered. In reviewing the client's information, which piece of information is of concern?
- A. Allergy to shellfish
- B. Has a cardiac pacemaker
- C. A diabetic
- D. No IV access
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Has a cardiac pacemaker.' If a client with a cardiac pacemaker undergoes an MRI, the magnetic field can interfere with the pacemaker's function, leading to serious complications or even death. It is crucial to ensure that the pacemaker is compatible with MRI imaging or to consider alternative imaging modalities. The other choices, such as 'Allergy to shellfish,' 'A diabetic,' and 'No IV access,' are not direct contraindications for an MRI scan and do not pose the same level of risk as having a cardiac pacemaker.
The nurse is caring for a burn victim with a skin graft to the hand. The area is pale and mottled but has good capillary refill. What is the nurse's best action at this time?
- A. Warm the room
- B. Submerge the hand in warm water
- C. Order a K pad and apply to hand
- D. Have the client exercise the fingers to increase blood flow
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a burn victim with a skin graft to the hand, exhibiting pale and mottled skin but good capillary refill, is to warm the room. By warming the room, the nurse helps promote circulation and maintain a conducive environment for healing. Submerging the hand in warm water can pose a risk of injury or infection to the graft site. Ordering a K pad and applying it to the hand may not be necessary at this time and could potentially cause harm. Having the client exercise the fingers to increase blood flow is also not recommended as it may interfere with the healing process of the skin graft.