Nokea
Why is prostaglandin E1 prescribed for a child with transposition of the great arteries?
- A. Prevents hypercyanotic (blue or tet) spells
- B. Maintains an adequate hormone level
- C. Maintains the position of the great arteries
- D. Provides adequate oxygen saturation and maintains cardiac output
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Prostaglandin E1 is prescribed for a child with transposition of the great arteries to increase blood mixing, which helps maintain adequate oxygen saturation and cardiac output. This medication does not prevent hypercyanotic spells, maintain hormone levels, or influence the position of the great arteries.
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A client who is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL, HCTZ) has been started on triamterene (Dyrenium) as well. The client asks the nurse why both medications are required. The nurse formulates a response, based on the understanding that:
- A. Both are weak potassium-losing diuretics.
- B. The combination of these medications prevents renal toxicity.
- C. Hydrochlorothiazide is less expensive, so using a combination of diuretics is cost-effective.
- D. Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, whereas hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The combination of triamterene and hydrochlorothiazide is used because triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which helps retain potassium, while hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic, which promotes potassium excretion. This combination helps balance potassium levels in the body, preventing imbalances that can occur when using potassium-losing diuretics alone.
A client who has been taking isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis asks the nurse about the medication. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. I should limit my alcohol intake.
- B. I should notify my doctor if I notice a yellowish skin color.
- C. I should take the medication with an empty stomach.
- D. I should notify my doctor if I experience numbness and tingling in my extremities.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A client has a prescription for albuterol (Proventil HFA) (two puffs) and beclomethasone dipropionate (Qvar) (nasal inhalation, two puffs) by metered-dose inhaler. The medications are to be administered by the nurse by giving the:
- A. Albuterol first and then the beclomethasone dipropionate
- B. Beclomethasone dipropionate first and then the albuterol
- C. Alternating a single puff of each, beginning with the albuterol
- D. Alternating a single puff of each, beginning with the beclomethasone dipropionate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A client is taking propranolol (Inderal LA). Which data collection finding would indicate a potential serious complication associated with propranolol?
- A. The development of complaints of insomnia
- B. The development of audible expiratory wheezes
- C. A baseline blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg followed by a blood pressure of 138/72 mm Hg after two doses of the medication
- D. A baseline resting heart rate of 88 beats/min followed by a resting heart rate of 72 beats/min after two doses of the medication
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The development of audible expiratory wheezes may indicate a serious adverse reaction, bronchospasm, associated with propranolol. Beta-blockers can trigger bronchospasm, especially in clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or asthma. This complication can lead to significant respiratory distress and should be addressed promptly to prevent further complications.
The client with ovarian cancer is being treated with vincristine (Oncovin). The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates a side effect specific to this medication?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Hair loss
- C. Chest pain
- D. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.