NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023

NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023 Related

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Why is starting a low CHO diet a contraindication for a client with renal insufficiency?

  • A. As long as the client eats a minimum of 30g of CHO/day, there should be no problem.
  • B. The client's clinical condition is a contraindication to starting a low CHO diet.
  • C. Calcium supplements should be utilized to prevent the development of osteoporosis while on a low CHO diet.
  • D. As long as the client eats foods that are high biologic protein sources, a low CHO diet can be followed.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A client with renal insufficiency should not start a low CHO diet because it could result in an increased renal solute load. Clients with renal or liver disease require protein control in their diet to prevent complications. Proteins used must be of high biologic value, and protein intake is usually weight-based. Protein levels may be adjusted based on the client's clinical condition. A minimum level of carbohydrates is needed in the diet to spare protein. Vitamin and mineral supplements might be needed for clients with liver failure. The dietician plays a crucial role in calculating specific nutrient requirements for these clients and monitoring outcomes in conjunction with the healthcare team. Choice A is incorrect because simply consuming a minimum amount of carbohydrates does not address the issue of increased renal solute load. Choice C is incorrect as calcium supplements are not the primary concern when considering a low CHO diet for a client with renal insufficiency. Choice D is incorrect as the focus should be on the contraindication of a low CHO diet for a client with renal insufficiency rather than just high biologic protein sources.

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Which of the following viruses is most likely to be acquired through casual contact with an infected individual?

  • A. influenza virus
  • B. herpes virus
  • C. cytomegalovirus (CMV)
  • D. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is influenza virus. Influenza virus is most likely to be acquired through casual contact with an infected individual as it is transmitted through respiratory droplets. Herpes virus is primarily transmitted by direct contact, such as skin-to-skin contact, making it less likely to be acquired through casual contact. HIV is mainly transmitted through blood and body fluids like semen and vaginal fluids, not through casual contact. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is an opportunistic infection commonly affecting immunocompromised individuals and is usually transmitted through close personal contact, not casual contact.

While assessing a patient in the ICU, a nurse observes signs of a weak pulse, quick respiration, acetone breath, and nausea. Which of the following conditions is most likely occurring?

  • A. Hypoglycemic patient
  • B. Hyperglycemic patient
  • C. Cardiac arrest
  • D. End-stage renal failure
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is a hyperglycemic patient. The signs described - weak pulse, quick respiration, acetone breath, and nausea - are indicative of hyperglycemia. A hypoglycemic patient would typically present with different signs such as pale skin, sweating, and confusion. Cardiac arrest would manifest with sudden loss of heart function and consciousness, not the signs described. End-stage renal failure would present with symptoms related to kidney dysfunction like edema, fatigue, and changes in urine output, which are not mentioned in the scenario.

A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

  • A. increased platelet count
  • B. increased fibrinogen
  • C. decreased fibrin split products
  • D. decreased bleeding
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Effective Heparin therapy should halt the process of intravascular coagulation, leading to increased availability of fibrinogen. Heparin interferes with thrombin-induced conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. Therefore, an increased fibrinogen level indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy. While increased platelet count and decreased bleeding are positive outcomes, the specific indicator for Heparin therapy response is the increase in fibrinogen level. Decreased fibrin split products would also be a positive response, but an increase in fibrinogen directly reflects the impact of Heparin therapy.

Which of the following infant behaviors demonstrates the concept of object permanence?

  • A. The infant cries when his mother leaves the room.
  • B. The infant looks at the floor to find a toy that he was playing with and dropped.
  • C. The infant picks up another toy after the one he was playing with rolls under the couch.
  • D. The infant participates in a game of patty-cake.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Object permanence occurs when the infant learns that something or someone still exists even though they might not be able to see it or them. This typically develops between 9 and 10 months of age. The correct answer, 'The infant looks at the floor to find a toy that he was playing with and dropped,' demonstrates object permanence as the infant understands that the toy still exists even though it is temporarily out of sight. Choices A and C do not directly relate to object permanence as the behaviors described do not necessarily indicate an understanding of objects existing when out of sight. Choice D is incorrect as participating in a game of patty-cake does not involve demonstrating object permanence. Peek-a-boo is a more suitable example of a game that demonstrates object permanence, as the infant continues to look for the hidden face, understanding that it still exists even though temporarily unseen.

A client receives a cervical intracavity radium implant as part of her therapy. A common side effect of a cervical implant is:

  • A. creamy, pink-tinged vaginal drainage.
  • B. stomatitis.
  • C. constipation.
  • D. xerostomia.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'creamy, pink-tinged vaginal drainage.' This side effect persists for 1 to 2 months after the removal of a cervical implant. Diarrhea, not constipation, is usually a side effect of cervical implants. Stomatitis and xerostomia are local side effects of radiation to the mouth, not associated with cervical implants. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.

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