Why may patients with hiatal hernia develop anemia?
- A. Iron absorption is reduced
- B. Gastritis may cause bleeding
- C. Iron stores turn over more quickly
- D. Patients have an aversion to foods that are good sources of iron
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gastritis may cause bleeding. In patients with hiatal hernia, gastritis can occur due to the reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus. This gastritis can lead to gastrointestinal bleeding, resulting in anemia. Choice A is incorrect because iron absorption is not necessarily reduced in hiatal hernia. Choice C is incorrect as iron stores turnover rate is not directly related to the development of anemia in this context. Choice D is incorrect as an aversion to iron-rich foods is not a common reason for anemia in patients with hiatal hernia.
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A family came to the emergency department with complaints of food poisoning. Which client should the nurse see first?
- A. 32-year-old with diarrhea for 6 hours
- B. 2-year-old with 1 wet diaper in 24 hours
- C. 40-year-old with abdominal cramping
- D. 10-year-old who is nauseated
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a 2-year-old with reduced urine output (1 wet diaper in 24 hours) is at high risk for dehydration. Dehydration can occur rapidly in young children and can be life-threatening. The nurse should prioritize assessing and managing the dehydration of the 2-year-old. Choices A, C, and D, although they may also require attention, do not present the same level of immediate risk as a dehydrated 2-year-old.
What is the combat health support system in the field designed to do?
- A. Provide evacuation to the far rear for treatment and delay return to duty
- B. Project, sustain, and protect the health of the soldier in war and operations other than war
- C. Provide rearward evacuation and reassignment
- D. Provide far rear area care and delayed return to duty
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The combat health support system in the field is designed to project, sustain, and protect the health of soldiers in both war and operations other than war. Choice A is incorrect because the system is not primarily focused on providing evacuation to the far rear for treatment, but rather on overall health support. Choice C is incorrect as it only mentions rearward evacuation and reassignment, which is a limited scope compared to the comprehensive support provided by the system. Choice D is incorrect as it narrowly focuses on far rear area care and delayed return to duty, missing the broader aspects of health support and protection.
During a respiratory assessment, the nurse is determining respirations per minute. Which factor(s) generally affect the character of respirations? Select all that apply.
- A. Anxiety
- B. Exercise
- C. Smoking
- D. A, B
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Anxiety and exercise can significantly alter the character of respirations, increasing the rate and depth. Smoking primarily affects the health of the respiratory system in the long term but may not immediately impact the character of respirations. Therefore, choice C is incorrect. Choices A and B are correct as anxiety and exercise can lead to changes in the rate and depth of respirations.
When palpating the client's neck for lymphadenopathy, where should the nurse position himself?
- A. At the client's back
- B. At the client's right side
- C. At the client's left side
- D. In front of a sitting client
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When palpating the client's neck for lymphadenopathy, the nurse should position himself in front of a sitting client. This positioning allows for easier access to the neck area and better visualization of any swelling or abnormalities in the lymph nodes. Being in front of the client ensures proper alignment and comfort for both the nurse and the client during the assessment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because positioning at the client's back or sides would make it challenging to adequately palpate the neck area and assess for lymphadenopathy.
What signs/symptoms would the nurse expect to find in the client diagnosed with an insulinoma?
- A. Nervousness, jitteriness, and diaphoresis
- B. Flushed skin, dry mouth, and tented skin turgor
- C. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
- D. Hypertension, tachycardia, and feeling hot
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Nervousness, jitteriness, and diaphoresis.' Insulinomas cause hypoglycemia due to excessive insulin production, leading to symptoms such as nervousness (from the sympathetic response to hypoglycemia), jitteriness, and diaphoresis (sweating). Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Flushed skin, dry mouth, and tented skin turgor (Choice B) are not typical signs of insulinoma. Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia (Choice C) are classic symptoms of diabetes mellitus, not insulinoma. Hypertension, tachycardia, and feeling hot (Choice D) are more indicative of hyperthyroidism or a hypermetabolic state, rather than an insulinoma presentation.
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