Nokea
Why should direct care providers avoid glued-on artificial nails?
- A. Interfere with dexterity of the fingers.
- B. Could fall off in a patient's bed.
- C. Harbor microorganisms.
- D. Can scratch a patient.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Direct care providers, including nurses, should avoid glued-on artificial nails because studies have shown that artificial nails, especially when cracked, broken, or split, create crevices where microorganisms can thrive and multiply. This can lead to an increased risk of transmitting infections to patients. Therefore, the primary reason for avoiding glued-on artificial nails is their potential to harbor harmful microorganisms, making option C the correct choice. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because while they may present some issues, the primary concern is the risk of microbial contamination associated with artificial nails.
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While assisting a client from bed to chair, the nurse observes that the client looks pale and is beginning to perspire heavily. The nurse would then do which of the following activities as a reassessment?
- A. Help client into the chair more quickly
- B. Document client's vital signs taken just prior to moving the client
- C. Help client back to bed immediately
- D. Observe client's skin color and take another set of vital signs
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse has observed concerning signs in the client during the transfer process. The appropriate action for reassessment would be to observe the client's skin color and take another set of vital signs. This will provide essential data to evaluate the client's condition more accurately. Options A, B, and C are interventions that do not address the need for reassessment. Moving the client more quickly, documenting previous vital signs, or returning the client to bed do not directly address the need to reassess the client's current condition.
After performing the appropriate client assessment, which of the following inferences would the nurse make?
- A. Client is hypotensive
- B. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
- C. Oxygen saturation of 95%
- D. Client relays anxiety about blood work
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An inference is the nurse's judgment or interpretation of cues gathered during an assessment. In this scenario, identifying a client as hypotensive would be an inference based on blood pressure readings that indicate lower than normal values. Respiratory rate and oxygen saturation levels (choices B and C) are important cues that provide additional data but do not directly point to a specific conclusion like hypotension. The client expressing anxiety about blood work (choice D) is relevant information but relates more to their emotional state rather than a physiological assessment finding.
When caring for a patient with latex allergy, the healthcare provider creates a latex-safe environment by doing which of the following?
- A. Carefully cleaning the wall-mounted blood pressure device before using it.
- B. Donning latex gloves outside the room to limit powder dispersal.
- C. Using a latex-free pharmacy protocol.
- D. Placing the patient in a semi-private room.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Creating a latex-safe environment for a patient with latex allergy is crucial to prevent allergic reactions. Using a latex-free pharmacy protocol is essential as it ensures that medications and supplies provided to the patient are free of latex components. Cleaning a wall-mounted blood pressure device may not be sufficient as the device itself may contain latex parts that can trigger an allergic reaction. Donning latex gloves, even outside the room, is not recommended as powder dispersal can cause issues; only non-latex gloves should be used in a latex-safe environment. Placing the patient in a semi-private room does not directly address the need to eliminate latex exposure from medical supplies and equipment, which is better achieved through a latex-free pharmacy protocol.
For a patient who is blood type AB, which blood product can they receive?
- A. Plasma from a type B donor
- B. Whole blood from a type A donor
- C. Packed RBCs from a type O donor
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A patient with blood type AB has AB antigens on their red blood cells. This means they can only receive blood products that are compatible with these antigens. Choice A is incorrect because an AB patient cannot receive plasma from a type B donor due to the antibodies present in type B plasma. Choice B is incorrect because an AB patient cannot receive whole blood from a type A donor as it contains incompatible antigens. Choice C is the correct answer because an AB patient can receive packed RBCs from a type O donor. Type O donors have no A or B antigens, making their blood compatible for transfusion to recipients with any blood type. Therefore, choices A and B are incorrect, and the correct choice is C.
Which is the most effective action for controlling the spread of infection?
- A. Thorough hand hygiene
- B. Wearing gloves and masks when providing direct client care
- C. Implementing appropriate isolation precautions
- D. Administering broad-spectrum prophylactic antibiotics
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Thorough hand hygiene is the most effective action for controlling the spread of infection as hands are a common source of transmission. Regular and routine hand hygiene helps prevent the movement of potentially infective materials. Wearing gloves and masks is important when providing direct client care to protect both the caregiver and the patient, but it is not as effective as thorough hand hygiene in preventing overall infection spread. Implementing appropriate isolation precautions is necessary for clients with known communicable diseases, but it is not as universally effective in preventing the spread of various infections. Administering broad-spectrum prophylactic antibiotics is not an appropriate measure for controlling the spread of infection as routine use can lead to superinfection and the development of resistant organisms.