Why should the nurse wake up a client who is to undergo an EEG at midnight?
- A. Because excess sleep may make the client lazy and nervous for the EEG
- B. Because optimum sleep helps regulate the breathing patterns during the EEG
- C. Because it helps the client to fall asleep naturally during the EEG
- D. Because it reduces the chances of getting a headache when electrodes are fixed to the scalp of the client
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because optimum sleep helps regulate breathing patterns during an EEG. Waking the client at midnight allows them to have a full night's rest, ensuring they are well-rested and their breathing is stable for accurate EEG results. Choice A is incorrect as excess sleep does not affect nervousness. Choice C is incorrect as waking the client does not help them fall asleep naturally during the EEG. Choice D is incorrect as headache prevention is not directly related to waking the client at midnight.
You may also like to solve these questions
At a public health fair, the nurse teaches a group of women about breast cancer awareness. Possible signs of breast cancer include:
- A. Fever.
- B. Nipple discharge and a breast nodule.
- C. Breast changes during menstruation.
- D. Fever and erythema of the breast.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because nipple discharge and a breast nodule are classic signs of breast cancer. Nipple discharge can be bloody or clear, and a breast nodule is a lump that feels different from the surrounding tissue. Fever (choice A) is not a common sign of breast cancer. Breast changes during menstruation (choice C) are normal hormonal fluctuations. Fever and erythema of the breast (choice D) are more indicative of an infection rather than breast cancer. Therefore, choice B is the most relevant sign of breast cancer among the options provided.
Which of these signs suggests that a client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing complications?
- A. Tetanic contractions
- B. Weight loss
- C. Neck vein distention
- D. Polyuria
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neck vein distention. In SIADH, there is excess release of antidiuretic hormone leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia, causing fluid overload. This can manifest as neck vein distention due to increased venous pressure. Tetanic contractions (A) and weight loss (B) are not typical complications of SIADH; tetany is more associated with hypocalcemia and weight loss is not a common manifestation. Polyuria (D) is actually the opposite of what is seen in SIADH, which is characterized by water retention and concentrated urine.
A client tells the nurse that she has been working hard for the last 3 months to control her type 2 diabetes mellitus with diet and exercise. To determine the effectiveness of the client’s efforts, the nurse should check:
- A. Urine glucose level
- B. Serum fructosamine level
- C. Fasting blood glucose level
- D. Glycosylated hemoglobin level
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Glycosylated hemoglobin level. This test provides an average blood glucose level over the past 2-3 months, reflecting long-term glycemic control. It is a more reliable indicator compared to other options. A: Urine glucose level only shows current glucose levels and is not a reliable indicator of long-term control. B: Serum fructosamine level reflects blood glucose control over the past 2-3 weeks, not the 3-month period the client has been making efforts. C: Fasting blood glucose level gives a snapshot of the current glucose level, not long-term control like glycosylated hemoglobin does.
Place the following four nursing actions for the new laryngectomee in correct order of priority? i.Assist with ambulation ii.Set up a visit from a well-adjusted laryngectomee iii.Maintain a patent airway iv.Control postoperative pain
- A. 1, 2, 3, 4
- B. 3, 4, 1, 2
- C. 2, 3, 4, 1
- D. 4, 1, 2, 3
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct order of priority for nursing actions for a new laryngectomee is: ii.Set up a visit from a well-adjusted laryngectomee, iii.Maintain a patent airway, iv.Control postoperative pain, i.Assist with ambulation. Setting up a visit from a well-adjusted laryngectomee comes first to provide emotional support and guidance. Maintaining a patent airway is crucial for breathing. Controlling postoperative pain is important for comfort. Assisting with ambulation is necessary but can be done after ensuring the other priorities are addressed. Other choices are incorrect because they do not prioritize emotional support, airway maintenance, and pain control before assisting with ambulation.
A patient has chronic respiratory acidosis related to long-standing lung disease. Which of the following problems is the cause?
- A. Hyperventilation
- B. Loss of acid by kidneys
- C. Hypoventilation
- D. Loss of base by kidneys CARING FOR CLIENTS REQUIRING INTRAVENOUS THERAPY
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypoventilation. In chronic respiratory acidosis, the lungs cannot effectively eliminate carbon dioxide, leading to an accumulation of CO2 in the blood, causing acidosis. Hypoventilation results in decreased removal of CO2, exacerbating the acidosis.
A: Hyperventilation would lead to respiratory alkalosis, not acidosis.
B: Loss of acid by kidneys would result in metabolic alkalosis, not respiratory acidosis.
D: Loss of base by kidneys would lead to metabolic acidosis, not respiratory acidosis.
In summary, the main issue in chronic respiratory acidosis is inadequate elimination of CO2 due to hypoventilation, leading to acidosis.