Nokea
Why would FAM not be appropriate for the nurse to recommend to a perimenopausal person?
- A. At that age, people do not have intercourse on a regular basis.
- B. They are married and do not need contraception.
- C. They have irregular menstrual periods.
- D. Pregnancy is not a concern when a person is perimenopausal.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fertility Awareness Methods (FAM) rely on tracking menstrual cycles and using that information to predict fertile and infertile days. In perimenopausal individuals, menstrual periods can become irregular due to hormonal fluctuations associated with menopause. As a result, it can be challenging to accurately determine fertile and infertile days, making FAM less effective for contraception in this population. Therefore, recommending FAM to a perimenopausal person with irregular menstrual periods would not be appropriate.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse provides counseling on coitus interruptus. What important counseling should be included?
- A. The partners must communicate well to use this method.
- B. This method is 100 percent effective because semen does not enter the vagina.
- C. BBT must be used with this method.
- D. All persons are able to control ejaculate in time to withdraw.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The important counseling that should be included when discussing coitus interruptus (withdrawal method) is that the partners must communicate well to use this method effectively. Coitus interruptus involves the male partner withdrawing his penis from the vagina before ejaculation to prevent sperm from entering the woman's reproductive tract. Effective communication between partners is crucial to ensure that the method is used correctly and consistently. This method does not protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs), so it's also important to discuss alternative methods of contraception for STI prevention. The statement that this method is 100 percent effective is incorrect, as pre-ejaculate can contain sperm and there is a risk of pregnancy if withdrawal is not done correctly.
Which is a disadvantage of the progesterone-only contraception pill?
- A. Side effects could be increased for persons who are underweight.
- B. There could be a decrease in bone mineral density over time.
- C. They may cause irregular bleeding and spotting.
- D. Return to fertility after discontinuing the pill may take several months.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: One of the main disadvantages of progesterone-only contraception pills is the potential decrease in bone mineral density over time with long-term use. Progesterone has been linked to a decrease in bone density, which can increase the risk of osteoporosis and fractures, particularly in women. It is important for individuals, especially those at higher risk for osteoporosis, to discuss this potential side effect with their healthcare provider before initiating progesterone-only contraception. Monitoring bone health and considering supplementation may be necessary for those using this type of contraception long-term.
A woman asks about the side effects of the contraceptive implant. Which of the following should the nurse include in the discussion?
- A. The implant will cause heavy menstrual bleeding.
- B. The implant may cause irregular bleeding patterns, including light spotting.
- C. The implant can cause weight gain.
- D. The implant may cause hair loss.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Irregular bleeding, including spotting, is a common side effect of the contraceptive implant. Choice A is incorrect because the implant typically leads to lighter periods or no periods at all. Choice C is incorrect as weight gain is not a guaranteed side effect, though some women report it. Choice D is incorrect because hair loss is not commonly associated with the implant.
A 35-year-old patient comes to the clinic 2 days after a tubal ligation. She complains of abdominal pain and swelling and redness at the surgical incision. What does the nurse know is a common complication of this procedure?
- A. Ileus
- B. Liver enlargement
- C. Constipation
- D. Infection
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Infection is a common complication after tubal ligation, indicated by redness and swelling at the surgical site. Choice A is incorrect as ileus is a bowel obstruction, not typically a complication of tubal ligation. Choice B, liver enlargement, is unrelated to tubal ligation. Choice C, constipation, may be a side effect but is not a primary concern after this procedure.
A 26-year-old woman is interested in using an IUD for contraception. What is the primary advantage of using an IUD over other contraceptive methods?
- A. It requires no daily action from the patient once inserted.
- B. It provides immediate protection after insertion.
- C. It is effective immediately after the first sexual activity after insertion.
- D. It is effective only for 6 months before needing replacement.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: One of the primary advantages of the IUD is that it requires no daily action, making it a convenient and reliable method. Choice B is incorrect because it may take a few days for some types of IUDs to provide full protection. Choice C is incorrect because immediate protection may not be ensured immediately after insertion, especially for hormonal IUDs. Choice D is incorrect because IUDs typically last for several years, not just 6 months.