Nokea
With a breech presentation, the nurse must be particularly alert for which of the following?
- A. quickening
- B. ophthalmia neonatorum
- C. pica
- D. prolapsed umbilical cord
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: With a breech presentation, the nurse must be particularly alert for a prolapsed umbilical cord. Prolapsed umbilical cord is a critical emergency situation where the umbilical cord descends into the vagina before the fetal presenting part, leading to compression between the presenting part and the maternal pelvis. This compression can compromise or completely cut off fetoplacental perfusion, endangering the fetus. Immediate delivery should be attempted to save the fetus. Quickening refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, ophthalmia neonatorum is an eye infection in newborns, and pica is a condition characterized by cravings for non-nutritive substances, none of which are directly related to the risks associated with a breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord.
You may also like to solve these questions
Teaching the client with gonorrhea how to prevent reinfection and further spread is an example of
- A. primary prevention
- B. secondary prevention
- C. tertiary prevention
- D. primary health care prevention
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. This type of prevention focuses on reducing the impact of a disease by early detection and treatment. In the case of gonorrhea, teaching the client how to prevent reinfection and further spread falls under secondary prevention because it aims to reduce the prevalence and morbidity of the disease.
Choice A (primary prevention) involves measures to prevent the disease from occurring in the first place, such as vaccination. Choice C (tertiary prevention) focuses on managing the long-term consequences of a disease to prevent complications. Choice D (primary health care prevention) is not a recognized term in prevention strategies.
Which of the following medications is a serotonin antagonist that might be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?
- A. metoclopramide (Reglan)
- B. ondansetron (Zofran)
- C. hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
- D. prochlorperazine (Compazine)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Zofran is a serotonin antagonist commonly used to relieve nausea and vomiting by blocking serotonin receptors. Metoclopramide (Reglan) acts on dopamine receptors, hydroxyzine (Vistaril) is an antihistamine, and prochlorperazine (Compazine) is a dopamine antagonist. While these medications can also be used for nausea and vomiting, they do not primarily function as serotonin antagonists like ondansetron.
Which of the following should be included in a diet rich in iron?
- A. peaches, eggs, beef
- B. cereals, kale, cheese
- C. red beans, enriched breads, squash
- D. legumes, green beans, eggs
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is peaches, eggs, beef. These are good sources of heme iron, which is more easily absorbed by the body compared to nonheme iron. Heme iron is mainly found in animal-based foods like meat, poultry, and fish. Peaches, eggs, and beef are rich in iron and can help prevent iron deficiency anemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not include significant sources of heme iron. Cereals, kale, cheese, red beans, enriched breads, squash, legumes, and green beans are sources of nonheme iron, which is not as efficiently absorbed by the body as heme iron. It is important to include heme iron sources in the diet for optimal iron absorption.
The death of a beloved spouse places the surviving partner in which type of crisis?
- A. maturational
- B. reactive
- C. nonreactive
- D. situational
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'situational.' A situational crisis is an unexpected, unplanned event, such as the death of a spouse, which can lead to significant distress. Option A is incorrect because a maturational crisis is related to normal life transitions like getting married or retiring. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not represent recognized crisis states in the context of the scenario provided.
Which type of exercises might be prescribed to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles of a client with urinary incontinence?
- A. Kegel
- B. resistance
- C. passive
- D. stretching
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Kegel. Kegel exercises are specifically designed to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, making them an effective treatment for urinary incontinence. These exercises involve contracting and relaxing the pelvic floor muscles, which helps to improve muscle tone and control. Choice B, resistance exercises, may not directly target the pelvic floor muscles as effectively as Kegel exercises. Passive exercises (Choice C) do not actively engage the muscles and are unlikely to strengthen the pelvic floor. Stretching exercises (Choice D) focus on increasing flexibility rather than muscle strength, so they are not the most appropriate for strengthening the pelvic floor muscles in the context of urinary incontinence.