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With routine prenatal screening, a woman in the second trimester of pregnancy is confirmed to have gestational diabetes. How may the nurse explain the role of diet and insulin in the management of blood sugar during pregnancy?
- A. You will need to take an oral hypoglycemic, which is a pill to lower your blood sugar.
- B. Insulin lowers an elevated blood sugar during pregnancy to meet the increased metabolic needs of the baby.
- C. There is a good possibility you will be taking insulin for the rest of your life.
- D. You should eat three large meals per day to maintain steady glucose load.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insulin lowers an elevated blood sugar during pregnancy to meet the increased metabolic needs of the baby. During pregnancy, the placenta produces hormones that can make it difficult for insulin to work effectively, leading to gestational diabetes. Insulin helps to lower blood sugar levels in the mother, which in turn provides the necessary glucose for the developing baby's growth and development. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Oral hypoglycemics are not typically prescribed during pregnancy due to potential risks to the baby. C) Gestational diabetes usually resolves after delivery and does not require lifelong insulin use. D) Eating three large meals per day can cause blood sugar spikes and is not recommended for managing gestational diabetes.
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For a pregnant adolescent who is anemic, which foods should the nurse include in the client's dietary plan to increase iron levels?
- A. Milk and fish
- B. Chicken and cottage cheese
- C. Orange juice and apricots
- D. Pickles and peanut butter sandwiches
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Orange juice and apricots. Orange juice is a good source of Vitamin C, which enhances iron absorption. Apricots are high in iron, helping to increase iron levels in the body. Milk and fish (choice A) contain little iron. Chicken and cottage cheese (choice B) are not significant sources of iron. Pickles and peanut butter sandwiches (choice D) lack iron and Vitamin C.
A woman at 42 weeks gestation enters the hospital for induction of labor. Since the infant is postterm, which complications should the nurse anticipate when planning for the delivery?
- A. Cephalopelvic disproportion and hypothermia
- B. Asphyxia and meconium aspiration
- C. Intraventricular hemorrhage and dry,cracked skin
- D. Hyperbilirubinemia and hypocalcemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Asphyxia and meconium aspiration. At 42 weeks gestation, the risk of perinatal asphyxia increases due to decreased placental function. Meconium aspiration can occur if the fetus passes stool in utero, leading to respiratory distress. The other choices are not directly related to postterm pregnancy complications. Cephalopelvic disproportion and hypothermia (Choice A) are not specific to postterm pregnancy. Intraventricular hemorrhage and dry, cracked skin (Choice C) are not commonly associated with postterm pregnancies. Hyperbilirubinemia and hypocalcemia (Choice D) are more likely to occur after birth and are not directly related to being postterm.
A client in preterm labor is admitted to the hospital. Which classification of drugs should the nurse anticipate administering?
- A. Tocolytics
- B. Anticonvulsants
- C. Glucocorticoids
- D. Anti-infective
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tocolytics. Tocolytics are drugs used to inhibit uterine contractions and delay preterm labor. They help prevent premature birth and allow time for other interventions. Anticonvulsants (B) are used to treat seizures, not preterm labor. Glucocorticoids (C) are given to enhance fetal lung maturity in preterm labor, but do not inhibit contractions. Anti-infectives (D) are used to treat infections, not preterm labor. Therefore, tocolytics are the most appropriate choice in this scenario.
A client is admitted to the hospital for induction of labor. Which are the main indications for labor induction?
- A. Placenta previa and twins
- B. Pregnancy-induced hypertension and postterm fetus
- C. Breech position and prematurity
- D. Cephalopelvic disproportion and fetal distress
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pregnancy-induced hypertension and postterm fetus. Labor induction is commonly indicated in cases of pregnancy-induced hypertension to prevent complications such as preeclampsia. Postterm fetus is another common indication to prevent risks associated with a prolonged pregnancy, such as stillbirth. Placenta previa, twins, breech position, prematurity, cephalopelvic disproportion, and fetal distress are not typically primary indications for labor induction. Placenta previa may require a cesarean section, twins may be delivered vaginally or by C-section, breech position may require external cephalic version or C-section, prematurity may necessitate medical management, cephalopelvic disproportion may require a C-section, and fetal distress may necessitate immediate delivery but not necessarily labor induction.
A nurse has reinforced teaching to the parent of a 9-month-old infant who has redness in the diaper area and inner thighs. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates a correct understanding of this teaching?
- A. I can use a hair dryer on the reddened skin to help with the drying.
- B. I can use powder after diaper changes to absorb excess moisture.
- C. I can use cloth diapers with rubber outer pants until the rash clears.
- D. I can keep the diaper off to expose the skin to air.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Exposing the skin to air helps prevent irritation and promotes healing.