Nokea
You are an emergency-room nurse caring for a trauma patient. Your patient has the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.26, PaCO2 28, HCO3 11 mEq/L. How would you interpret these results?
- A. Respiratory acidosis with no compensation
- B. Metabolic alkalosis with a compensatory alkalosis
- C. Metabolic acidosis with no compensation
- D. Metabolic acidosis with a compensatory respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A low pH indicates acidosis (normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45). The PaCO2 is also low, which causes alkalosis. The bicarbonate is low, which causes acidosis. The pH bicarbonate more closely corresponds with a decrease in pH, making the metabolic component the primary problem.
You may also like to solve these questions
You are caring for a patient who is being treated on the oncology unit with a diagnosis of lung cancer with bone metastases. During your assessment, you note that the patient complains of a new onset of weakness with abdominal pain. Further assessment suggests that the patient likely has a fluid volume deficit. You should recognize that this patient may be experiencing what electrolyte imbalance?
- A. Hypernatremia
- B. Hypomagnesemia
- C. Hypophosphatemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most common causes of hypercalcemia are malignancies and hyperparathyroidism. Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and constipation are common symptoms of hypercalcemia. Dehydration occurs with nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and calcium reabsorption at the proximal renal tubule. Abdominal and bone pain may also be present. Primary manifestations of hypernatremia are neurologic and would not include abdominal pain and dehydration. Tetany is the most characteristic manifestation of hypomagnesemia, and this scenario does not mention tetany. The patient's presentation is inconsistent with hypophosphatemia.
You are making initial shift assessments on your patients. While assessing one patients peripheral IV site, you note edema around the insertion site. How should you document this complication related to IV therapy?
- A. Air emboli
- B. Phlebitis
- C. Infiltration
- D. Fluid overload
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Infiltration is the administration of nonvesicant solution or medication into the surrounding tissue. This can occur when the IV cannula dislodges or perforates the wall of the vein. Infiltration is characterized by edema around the insertion site, leakage of IV fluid from the insertion site, discomfort and coolness in the area of infiltration, and a significant decrease in the flow rate. Air emboli, phlebitis, and fluid overload are not indications of infiltration.
You are the nurse evaluating a newly admitted patients laboratory results, which include several values that are outside of reference ranges. Which of the following would cause the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?
- A. Increased serum sodium
- B. Decreased serum potassium
- C. Decreased hemoglobin
- D. Increased platelets
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Increased serum sodium causes increased thirst and the release of ADH by the posterior pituitary gland. When serum osmolality decreases and thirst and ADH secretions are suppressed, the kidney excretes more water to restore normal osmolality. Levels of potassium, hemoglobin, and platelets do not directly affect SDH release.
A 73-year-old man comes into the emergency department (ED) by ambulance after slipping on a small carpet in his home. The patient fell on his hip with a resultant fracture. He is alert and oriented; his pupils are equal and reactive to light and accommodation. His heart rate is elevated, he is anxious and thirsty, a Foley catheter is placed, and 40 mL of urine is present. What is the nurses most likely explanation for the low urine output?
- A. The man urinated prior to his arrival to the ED and will probably not need to have the Foley catheter kept in place.
- B. The man likely has a traumatic brain injury, lacks antidiuretic hormone (ADH), and needs vasopressin.
- C. The man is experiencing symptoms of heart failure and is releasing atrial natriuretic peptide that results in decreased urine output.
- D. The man is having a sympathetic reaction, which has stimulated the reninangiotensinaldosterone system that results in diminished urine output.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Renin is released by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidneys in response to decreased renal perfusion. Angiotensin-converting enzyme converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II, with its vasoconstrictor properties, increases arterial perfusion pressure and stimulates thirst. As the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, aldosterone is released in response to an increased release of renin, which decreases urine production. Based on the nursing assessment and mechanism of injury, this is the most likely causing the lower urine output. The man urinating prior to his arrival to the ED is unlikely; the fall and hip injury would make his ability to urinate difficult. No assessment information indicates he has a head injury or heart failure.
You are working on a burns unit and one of your acutely ill patients is exhibiting signs and symptoms of third spacing. Based on this change in status, you should expect the patient to exhibit signs and symptoms of what imbalance?
- A. Metabolic alkalosis
- B. Hypermagnesemia
- C. Hypercalcemia
- D. Hypovolemia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Third-spacing fluid shift, which occurs when fluid moves out of the intravascular space but not into the intracellular space, can cause hypovolemia. Increased calcium and magnesium levels are not indicators of third-spacing fluid shift. Burns typically cause acidosis, not alkalosis.