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You are caring for a patient with a secondary diagnosis of hypermagnesemia. What assessment finding would be most consistent with this diagnosis?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Kussmaul respirations
- C. Increased DTRs
- D. Shallow respirations
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: If hypermagnesemia is suspected, the nurse monitors the vital signs, noting hypotension and shallow respirations. The nurse also observes for decreased DTRs and changes in the level of consciousness. Kussmaul breathing is a deep and labored breathing pattern associated with severe metabolic acidosis, particularly diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), but also renal failure. This type of patient is associated with decreased DTRs, not increased DTRs.
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You are doing discharge teaching with a patient who has hypophosphatemia during his time in hospital. The patient has a diet ordered that is high in phosphate. What foods would you teach this patient to include in his diet? Select all that apply.
- A. Milk
- B. Beef
- C. Poultry
- D. Green vegetables
- E. Liver
Correct Answer: A,C,E
Rationale: If the patient experiences mild hypophosphatemia, foods such as milk and milk products, organ meats, nuts, fish, poultry, and whole grains should be encouraged. Beef and green vegetables are not particularly high in phosphate compared to the other options.
A 73-year-old man comes into the emergency department (ED) by ambulance after slipping on a small carpet in his home. The patient fell on his hip with a resultant fracture. He is alert and oriented; his pupils are equal and reactive to light and accommodation. His heart rate is elevated, he is anxious and thirsty, a Foley catheter is placed, and 40 mL of urine is present. What is the nurses most likely explanation for the low urine output?
- A. The man urinated prior to his arrival to the ED and will probably not need to have the Foley catheter kept in place.
- B. The man likely has a traumatic brain injury, lacks antidiuretic hormone (ADH), and needs vasopressin.
- C. The man is experiencing symptoms of heart failure and is releasing atrial natriuretic peptide that results in decreased urine output.
- D. The man is having a sympathetic reaction, which has stimulated the reninangiotensinaldosterone system that results in diminished urine output.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Renin is released by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidneys in response to decreased renal perfusion. Angiotensin-converting enzyme converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II, with its vasoconstrictor properties, increases arterial perfusion pressure and stimulates thirst. As the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, aldosterone is released in response to an increased release of renin, which decreases urine production. Based on the nursing assessment and mechanism of injury, this is the most likely causing the lower urine output. The man urinating prior to his arrival to the ED is unlikely; the fall and hip injury would make his ability to urinate difficult. No assessment information indicates he has a head injury or heart failure.
A patient with a longstanding diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder presents to the emergency room. The triage nurse notes upon assessment that the patient is hyperventilating. The triage nurse is aware that hyperventilation is the most common cause of which acidbase imbalance?
- A. Respiratory acidosis
- B. Respiratory alkalosis
- C. Increased PaCO2
- D. CNS disturbances
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most common cause of acute respiratory alkalosis is hyperventilation. Extreme anxiety can lead to hyperventilation. Acute respiratory acidosis occurs in emergency situations, such as pulmonary edema, and is exhibited by hypoventilation and decreased PaCO2. CNS disturbances are found in extreme hyponatremia and fluid overload.
You are caring for a patient who is being treated on the oncology unit with a diagnosis of lung cancer with bone metastases. During your assessment, you note that the patient complains of a new onset of weakness with abdominal pain. Further assessment suggests that the patient likely has a fluid volume deficit. You should recognize that this patient may be experiencing what electrolyte imbalance?
- A. Hypernatremia
- B. Hypomagnesemia
- C. Hypophosphatemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most common causes of hypercalcemia are malignancies and hyperparathyroidism. Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and constipation are common symptoms of hypercalcemia. Dehydration occurs with nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and calcium reabsorption at the proximal renal tubule. Abdominal and bone pain may also be present. Primary manifestations of hypernatremia are neurologic and would not include abdominal pain and dehydration. Tetany is the most characteristic manifestation of hypomagnesemia, and this scenario does not mention tetany. The patient's presentation is inconsistent with hypophosphatemia.
You are working on a burns unit and one of your acutely ill patients is exhibiting signs and symptoms of third spacing. Based on this change in status, you should expect the patient to exhibit signs and symptoms of what imbalance?
- A. Metabolic alkalosis
- B. Hypermagnesemia
- C. Hypercalcemia
- D. Hypovolemia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Third-spacing fluid shift, which occurs when fluid moves out of the intravascular space but not into the intracellular space, can cause hypovolemia. Increased calcium and magnesium levels are not indicators of third-spacing fluid shift. Burns typically cause acidosis, not alkalosis.