You are ordered to administer 0.3 mL of epinephrine for a moderate allergic reaction. What is the preferred initial route of administration of epinephrine for an allergic reaction?
- A. Subcutaneous
- B. Intramuscular
- C. Intravenous
- D. Endotracheal
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The preferred initial route of administration for epinephrine in an allergic reaction is intramuscular (IM) injection (Choice B) because it ensures rapid absorption and onset of action. Epinephrine acts quickly when injected into the muscle, reaching the bloodstream efficiently to counteract allergic reactions. Subcutaneous (Choice A) administration may lead to slower absorption. Intravenous (Choice C) administration is too invasive and can result in rapid, potentially dangerous effects. Endotracheal (Choice D) administration is not recommended for epinephrine as it is not a standard route and may not provide the desired therapeutic effects.
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Sara Thomas is scheduled for liposuction surgery to reduce her weight. Based on urgency, how is this surgery classified?
- A. urgent
- B. elective
- C. emergency
- D. emergent
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Liposuction is a planned procedure to improve appearance or reduce weight, not an urgent or emergency situation, making it elective.
If a resident feels faint, a nursing assistant should
- A. Try to have the resident stand up before fainting occurs
- B. Have the resident lean forward and place her head between her knees
- C. Tighten the resident's clothing
- D. Leave the resident alone as soon as symptoms disappear
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because having the resident lean forward and place her head between her knees can help increase blood flow to the brain, potentially preventing a full faint. This position promotes better circulation and oxygenation to the brain, helping the resident feel better. Choice A is incorrect as it can worsen the situation by causing the resident to fall and potentially get hurt. Choice C is incorrect as tightening clothing can restrict blood flow and exacerbate the fainting episode. Choice D is incorrect as leaving the resident alone may lead to a dangerous situation if the symptoms worsen.
Which of the following medication types are used to decrease the workload of the heart by blocking sympathetic stimulation of receptors that work on the SA node and myocardial cells, thus decreasing the force of myocardial contraction and directly reducing a patient's heart rate?
- A. Alpha-adrenergic agents
- B. Beta-blockers
- C. Calcium-channel blockers
- D. Sodium-channel blockers
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Beta-blockers. Beta-blockers decrease the workload of the heart by blocking the sympathetic stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart. This action results in a decrease in heart rate and the force of myocardial contraction. By blocking these receptors, beta-blockers reduce the impact of adrenaline and other stress hormones on the heart, leading to a decrease in the heart's workload.
A: Alpha-adrenergic agents primarily work on alpha-adrenergic receptors and do not have the same effect on decreasing the workload of the heart.
C: Calcium-channel blockers work by blocking calcium channels in the heart and blood vessels, leading to vasodilation and decreased contractility of the heart. While they can reduce the heart's workload, they do not primarily target sympathetic stimulation of receptors working on the SA node and myocardial cells.
D: Sodium-channel blockers primarily affect the conduction of electrical impulses in the heart and are used for different purposes, such as
If a nursing assistant encourages a resident to play cards with friends, what kind of wellness is she promoting?
- A. Physical wellness
- B. Social wellness
- C. Emotional wellness
- D. Intellectual wellness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Social wellness. By encouraging the resident to play cards with friends, the nursing assistant is promoting social wellness. Social wellness focuses on building and maintaining healthy relationships and connections with others. Playing cards with friends fosters social interaction, communication, and a sense of belonging, which are all essential aspects of social wellness. Physical wellness (A) pertains to the physical health and fitness of an individual. Emotional wellness (C) relates to managing emotions and mental health. Intellectual wellness (D) involves stimulating the mind through learning and problem-solving. However, in this scenario, the main focus is on promoting social connections and relationships, making social wellness the most appropriate choice.
While conducting an EKG on your post-myocardial infarction patient, you note the presence of consistently wide QRS complexes greater than 120 ms in duration. What does this most likely indicate?
- A. An intraventricular conduction delay or right/left bundle branch block
- B. A complete heart block indicating no relationship between the atria and ventricles
- C. The patient is likely suffering from a myocardial infarction currently
- D. The patient has a congenital heart defect and should not require emergency care
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: An intraventricular conduction delay or right/left bundle branch block. Wide QRS complexes (>120 ms) suggest delayed ventricular depolarization, which can be caused by bundle branch blocks. In the context of a post-myocardial infarction patient, this is a common finding due to damage to the conduction system.
Summary:
B: A complete heart block is characterized by a lack of communication between the atria and ventricles, leading to a different EKG pattern.
C: Wide QRS complexes do not directly indicate a current myocardial infarction; other EKG changes would be seen.
D: Wide QRS complexes are not typically associated with congenital heart defects in this scenario, and emergency care may still be necessary.
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