Nokea
You informed the mother about the normal psychosocial development of pre schoolers. She correctly understands your health teaching if she verbalizes that ________.
- A. He may have temper tantrums resulting from his frustration im watching to do everything for himself.
- B. He continues to react to separation from his parents.
- C. He son is more active with his parents and tends to be a bit selfish with his toys.
- D. He may tend exaggerate, boast, and tattle on others.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Option A indicates an understanding of the normal psychosocial development of preschoolers. It reflects the fact that during this stage, children may demonstrate frustration and have temper tantrums as they strive for independence and attempt to do things by themselves. This behavior is a common part of their development as they learn self-control, autonomy, and decision-making skills. The other options do not directly relate to normal preschooler development but rather touch upon separate issues such as separation anxiety, possessiveness, and social behaviors that are not necessarily abnormal for preschoolers.
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A patient presents with recurrent episodes of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE). Laboratory tests reveal elevated levels of antiphospholipid antibodies (anticardiolipin and lupus anticoagulant). Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
- A. Protein C deficiency
- B. Protein S deficiency
- C. Antithrombin III deficiency
- D. Antiphospholipid syndrome
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Antiphospholipid syndrome is characterized by abnormal antiphospholipid antibodies, which can lead to an increased risk of blood clots such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE). The two most common antiphospholipid antibodies are anticardiolipin and lupus anticoagulant. Patients with antiphospholipid syndrome can present with recurrent thrombotic events, such as DVT and PE, due to the pro-thrombotic effects of these antibodies. Protein C deficiency, Protein S deficiency, and Antithrombin III deficiency are other causes of hypercoagulability but would not typically present with elevated antiphospholipid antibodies.
A patient is prescribed an anticoagulant for the prevention of venous thromboembolism (VTE). Which laboratory parameter should the nurse monitor closely during anticoagulant therapy?
- A. Platelet count
- B. International normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Serum sodium levels
- D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the International Normalized Ratio (INR) closely during anticoagulant therapy for the prevention of VTE. The INR measures the clotting ability of the blood and is used to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, such as warfarin. Maintaining the INR within the target therapeutic range is crucial to prevent both excessive bleeding due to over-anticoagulation and clotting events due to under-anticoagulation. Close monitoring of the INR helps healthcare providers adjust the anticoagulant dosage as needed to ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes and minimize risks. Platelet count, serum sodium levels, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) are important laboratory parameters to monitor for other medical conditions but are not specific to anticoagulant therapy.
In providing health teaching to the famil, Nurse Emma would include in her teachings the etioology of Scabies which is __________.
- A. virus
- B. bacteria
- C. fungi
- D. Parasite
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Scabies is caused by an infestation of the microscopic mite Sarcoptes scabiei. This parasitic mite burrows into the upper layer of the skin, where it lays eggs and causes intense itching and skin irritation. The transmission of scabies usually occurs through close and prolonged skin-to-skin contact with an infested person. Unlike viruses, bacteria, and fungi, which are microorganisms that can also cause skin infections, scabies specifically refers to an infestation by a parasitic mite.
A 32-year-old pregnant woman presents with painless vaginal bleeding at 10 weeks of gestation. On ultrasound, a gestational sac with no embryo is visualized within the uterus. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be responsible for these findings?
- A. Threatened abortion
- B. Inevitable abortion
- C. Missed abortion
- D. Ectopic pregnancy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a missed abortion, the embryo has died, but the products of conception remain in the uterus, leading to the visualization of a gestational sac without an embryo on ultrasound. This is a type of missed miscarriage where the woman may not have any symptoms initially and the diagnosis is made during a routine ultrasound. The most common presenting symptom is painless vaginal bleeding. The absence of an embryo within the gestational sac can be confirmed through serial ultrasound examinations showing no fetal growth or cardiac activity. It is important for healthcare providers to provide appropriate counseling and management options to support the patient through this emotional experience.
There are three demographic variables in population growth. Which one is NOT included?
- A. Fertility
- B. Morbidity
- C. Migration
- D. Mortality
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Morbidity refers to the state of being diseased or unhealthy, which is not directly related to population growth. On the other hand, fertility, mortality, and migration are three fundamental demographic variables that significantly influence population growth. Fertility refers to the ability of a population to produce offspring, mortality deals with death rates within a population, and migration involves the movement of individuals into or out of a particular area. These three variables play crucial roles in shaping the size and composition of a population over time.