Nokea
You would not find which of the following assessments in a patient with severe anemia?
- A. Pallor
- B. Fatigue
- C. Cold sensitivity
- D. Dyspnea only on exertion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cold sensitivity. Severe anemia leads to decreased oxygen delivery to tissues, causing symptoms like pallor, fatigue, and dyspnea on exertion due to the body compensating for low oxygen levels. Cold sensitivity is not a common symptom associated with anemia. The other choices are directly related to severe anemia due to the lack of oxygen delivery to tissues.
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A client requires minor surgery for removal of a basal cell tumor. The anesthesiologist administers the anesthetic ketamine hydrochloride (Ketalar), 60g IV. After Ketamine administration, the nurse should monitor the client for:
- A. Muscle rigidity and spasms
- B. Hiccups
- C. Extrapyramidal reactions
- D. Respiratory depression
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle rigidity and spasms. Ketamine can cause muscle rigidity and spasms as a side effect. The anesthesiologist should monitor the client for this adverse reaction. Muscle rigidity and spasms are common with ketamine administration and can affect the client's comfort and safety during the procedure. It is important for the nurse to promptly address any signs of muscle rigidity or spasms to prevent complications.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B: Hiccups - Ketamine can cause hiccups, but it is not the primary side effect to monitor for in this scenario.
C: Extrapyramidal reactions - Ketamine does not typically cause extrapyramidal reactions.
D: Respiratory depression - Ketamine is known for its minimal effect on respiratory depression compared to other anesthetics. Monitoring respiratory depression is still important, but not the primary concern with ketamine administration in this case.
Which of the ff should qualify as an abnormal result in a Romberg test?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Swaying, losing balance, or arm drifting
- C. Sneezing and wheezing
- D. Excessive cerumen in the outer ear
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. In a Romberg test, the patient stands with feet together and eyes closed to assess proprioception.
2. Swaying, losing balance, or arm drifting indicates impaired proprioception, suggesting a positive Romberg sign, which is abnormal.
3. Hypotension (choice A) is not directly related to the Romberg test.
4. Sneezing and wheezing (choice C) are unrelated to the test.
5. Excessive cerumen in the outer ear (choice D) does not affect proprioception.
Summary: Choice B is correct as it directly relates to impaired proprioception, which is abnormal in a Romberg test. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are unrelated to the purpose of the test.
A client is admitted to the hospital with a bleeding ulcer and is to receive 4 units of packed cells. Which nursing intervention is of primary importance in the administration of blood?
- A. Checking the flow rate
- B. Monitoring the vital signs
- C. Identifying the client
- D. Maintaining blood temperature
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Identifying the client is crucial for correct blood transfusion to avoid errors.
Step 2: Client identification includes verifying name, date of birth, and unique identifiers.
Step 3: Ensuring correct patient prevents transfusion reactions and improves patient safety.
Step 4: Monitoring vital signs and flow rate are important but secondary to client identification.
Step 5: Maintaining blood temperature is not a primary concern during blood transfusion.
The majority of lumbar disc herniations occur at the level of:
- A. L1 –L2
- B. L4-L5
- C. L3-L4
- D. S1-S2
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: L4-L5. This is because the L4-L5 intervertebral disc segment experiences the highest amount of mechanical stress and mobility in the lumbar spine, making it more prone to herniation. Additionally, nerve roots at this level innervate the lower extremities, making it a common site for symptoms such as sciatica. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because herniations at those levels are less common due to lower mechanical stress and mobility compared to L4-L5.
Which of the following guidelines should a nursing instructor provide to nursing students who are now responsible for assessing their clients?
- A. Assessment data about the client should be collected continuously.
- B. Assess your client after receiving the nursing report and again before giving a report to the next shift of nurses.
- C. Assess your client at least hourly if the client’s vital signs are unstable, and every two hours if the vital signs are stable.
- D. Assessment data should be collected prior to the physician rounding on the unit.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because continuous assessment allows for timely identification of changes in the client's condition. This is crucial for providing appropriate and timely interventions. Assessing the client only at specific times (choices B and C) may lead to missing important changes. Choice D is incorrect because assessments should not be limited to physician rounds; they should be ongoing to ensure comprehensive care.