Nokea
Your client has a doctor's order that reads 'advance diet as tolerated'. This client has returned from the recovery room after an appendectomy and he states, 'I am hungry'. What would you offer this client to consume?
- A. Cheese and crackers
- B. Apple sauce
- C. Chicken broth
- D. A peanut butter sandwich
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chicken broth is a suitable option for a post-appendectomy patient beginning to tolerate oral intake. It is clear liquid and easily digestible, making it a gentle choice for someone who has just returned from surgery. Cheese and crackers, apple sauce, and a peanut butter sandwich are not ideal options for an individual who needs to start with a light and easily digestible diet.
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Select the stage of viral hepatitis that is accurately paired with its characteristic(s).
- A. The prodromal stage: Jaundice begins
- B. The icteric stage: Flu-like symptoms occur
- C. The pre-icteric stage: Elevated urine bilirubin levels
- D. The post-icteric stage: Jaundice and dark urine occur
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The post-icteric stage of viral hepatitis is accurately described as the stage where jaundice and dark urine occur due to the accumulation of bilirubin. The resolution of jaundice and normalization of urine color are seen in this stage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. In the prodromal stage, symptoms like fatigue and malaise appear before jaundice. The icteric stage is characterized by jaundice, not flu-like symptoms. The pre-icteric stage does not typically involve elevated urine bilirubin levels, as this occurs after the icteric stage.
What is the main purpose of quality improvement in healthcare?
- A. To increase healthcare costs
- B. To improve patient outcomes
- C. To decrease patient satisfaction
- D. To increase hospital stays
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The main purpose of quality improvement in healthcare is to improve patient outcomes by enhancing the quality and safety of healthcare services. Choice A is incorrect because the goal is not to increase healthcare costs but to optimize resources and provide cost-effective care. Choice C is incorrect as the aim is to increase patient satisfaction through better outcomes. Choice D is incorrect as the objective is to reduce hospital stays by improving care efficiency and effectiveness.
Which insulin has the most rapid onset of action?
- A. Lente
- B. Lispro
- C. Ultralente
- D. Humulin N
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lispro insulin has the most rapid onset of action among the options provided. It is a rapid-acting insulin analog that is designed to control postprandial hyperglycemia effectively. Lente insulin (Choice A) and Ultralente insulin (Choice C) are intermediate-acting insulins, which have a slower onset of action compared to Lispro. Humulin N (Choice D) is a neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin, which is an intermediate-acting insulin, not rapid-acting like Lispro. Therefore, the correct choice is Lispro.
Nurse Andy has finished teaching a client with diabetes mellitus how to administer insulin. He evaluates the learning has occurred when the client makes which statement?
- A. I should check my blood sugar immediately prior to the administration.
- B. I should provide direct pressure over the site following the injection.
- C. I should use the abdominal area only for insulin injections.
- D. I should only use a calibrated insulin syringe for the injections.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because using a calibrated insulin syringe is crucial for accurate dosing when administering insulin. Choice A is incorrect because checking blood sugar before administration is essential but not the specific evaluation of learning in this context. Choice B is incorrect as applying direct pressure over the injection site is not a key indicator of learning about insulin administration. Choice C is incorrect as insulin injections can also be administered in other sites like the thigh or arm; it is not limited to the abdominal area.
Select the tactile sensation that is accurately paired with its description or procedure for testing.
- A. Fine motor coordination: The use of the fingers
- B. Stereognosis: Equal hearing in both ears
- C. Two-point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin
- D. Gross motor function: The use of the lower limbs
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Two-point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin. Two-point discrimination assesses the ability to discern two points touched simultaneously on the skin. Fine motor coordination (Choice A) refers to the precise movements of small muscles, not related to tactile sensation. Stereognosis (Choice B) is the ability to recognize objects by touch, not equal hearing in both ears. Gross motor function (Choice D) involves the coordination of large muscle groups, not specifically related to tactile sensation testing.