Nokea
Your patient who had AIDS/HIV has just died. Should you still use standard precautions as you provide post-mortem care?
- A. Yes, because the virus is still transmissible
- B. Yes, because respect must still be maintained
- C. No, because the virus is no longer transmissible
- D. No, because it is disrespectful
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Yes, you should still use standard precautions even after an HIV/AIDS patient has died. The virus can remain infectious after death, and healthcare workers need to protect themselves from potential exposure. Choice B is incorrect because while respect is important, the primary reason for using standard precautions is to prevent transmission of infectious diseases. Choice C is incorrect as the virus can still be transmissible even after the patient's death. Choice D is incorrect as using standard precautions is a matter of infection control, not a question of respect.
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Which bloodborne pathogen is the most virulent? (Choose the BEST answer.)
- A. HCV
- B. HPV
- C. HIV
- D. HBV
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is HCV (Hepatitis C Virus). Hepatitis C is considered the most virulent bloodborne pathogen, being 100 times more virulent than Hepatitis B. HPV (Human Papillomavirus) is a sexually transmitted infection but is not a bloodborne pathogen. HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) affects the immune system but is not as virulent as Hepatitis C in terms of bloodborne transmission. HBV (Hepatitis B Virus) is less virulent compared to HCV in the context of bloodborne transmission.
A client is complaining of pain in his right hand after surgery. The IV in his hand has slowed down, and the skin around the site is reddened and cool. The client reports localized pain in the hand and fingers. What is the most likely cause of this client's pain?
- A. The client's IV is infiltrated
- B. The client is experiencing phlebitis from the last drug administered
- C. The client has a blood clot developing in the distal arteries of the wrist
- D. The client's pain is associated with myocardial ischemia and he is having a heart attack
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pain, cool skin, and edema at an IV injection site indicate IV infiltration. The reddened and cool skin around the IV site, along with localized pain and a slowed IV drip rate, are classic signs of infiltration. Infiltration occurs when IV fluids or medications enter the surrounding tissues instead of the vein, leading to potential tissue damage. Phlebitis is inflammation of a vein, not infiltration. A blood clot in the distal arteries of the wrist would not cause these specific symptoms. Myocardial ischemia and heart attack are unrelated to the client's localized hand pain and IV issues.
Which of the following may represent an upper airway obstruction?
- A. Retractions
- B. Elongated expiratory phase
- C. Stridor
- D. Expiratory wheezing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Stridor is the sound produced by turbulent airflow through a partially obstructed upper airway. It is a classic sign of upper airway obstruction. While an elongated expiratory phase may indicate lower airway obstruction, stridor specifically points to an upper airway issue. Retractions are also often seen in upper airway obstruction due to the increased effort of breathing. Expiratory wheezing, on the other hand, is more indicative of lower airway conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
A client has become combative and is attempting to pull out his IV and take off his surgical dressings. The nurse receives an order to apply wrist restraints. Which action of the nurse signifies that restraints are being used safely?
- A. The nurse ties the restraints in a square knot to prevent the client from untying them
- B. The restraints are attached to a movable portion of the bed
- C. The padded side of the restraint is applied next to the skin of the wrist
- D. The nurse assesses the client's distal circulation every 24 hours
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Restraint use must prioritize the safety of the client. When applying restraints around the wrists, the padded side should be placed against the skin to help prevent skin breakdown. Additionally, restraints should be secured in quick-release knots to ensure they can be removed rapidly in case of an emergency. Choice A is incorrect as restraints should not be tied in a way that could prevent quick removal. Choice B is incorrect because restraints should not be attached to a movable part of the bed to avoid unintentional movement. Choice D is incorrect as assessing distal circulation is important but is not directly related to the safe application of restraints.
A client is post-op day #1 after a hemilaminectomy. The nurse removes the dressing as ordered and notes that the incision appears slightly red, with a small amount of serous drainage coming from the site. The edges of the incision are approximated. What is the next action of the nurse?
- A. Assist the client to shower as ordered and monitor the site for further changes
- B. Instruct the client to lie prone to allow the site to dry
- C. Place antibiotic ointment and a sterile dressing over the site
- D. Notify the physician for an antibiotic order
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An incision that appears slightly red with a small amount of serous drainage on the first day following surgery is going through a normal healing process. It is important to keep the incision clean. In this case, the nurse should assist the client to shower as ordered to maintain hygiene and monitor for changes in the incision site. Instructing the client to lie prone may not be necessary and could cause discomfort. Applying antibiotic ointment without a specific order is not recommended as it can interfere with the healing process. Notifying the physician for an antibiotic order is premature at this stage since the incision is showing normal signs of healing.