Nokea
A healthcare professional is assisting with the development of an education program about nutritional risk among adolescents to a group of parents of adolescents. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional include in the teaching? (Select all that apply).
- A. Skipping more than three meals per week
- B. Eating fast food once a week
- C. Hearty appetite
- D. Drink whole milk to ensure adequate calcium intake.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Skipping more than three meals per week is an indicator of poor nutritional habits in adolescents. This can lead to inadequate nutrient intake and negatively impact growth and development. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with poor nutritional habits among adolescents. Eating fast food once a week may not necessarily indicate poor nutrition if the overall diet is balanced. Having a hearty appetite does not provide specific information about nutritional risk, as appetite can vary among individuals. While whole milk can be a source of calcium, it is not necessary to drink whole milk specifically to ensure adequate calcium intake, as there are other sources of calcium available.
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Which statement best describes the effects of immobility in children?
- A. Immobility prevents the progression of language and fine motor development
- B. Immobility in children has similar physical effects to those found in adults
- C. Children are more susceptible to the effects of immobility than adults are
- D. Children are likely to have prolonged immobility with subsequent complications
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Immobility in children indeed has physical effects similar to those found in adults. However, it can also significantly impact their development and growth. Choice A is incorrect because immobility does not solely prevent language and fine motor development but affects various aspects. Choice C is incorrect as susceptibility to the effects of immobility may vary between children and adults depending on individual factors. Choice D is incorrect as not all children are likely to have prolonged immobility with subsequent complications.
A primigravida in the third trimester is hospitalized for preeclampsia. The nurse determines that the client's blood pressure is increasing. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Check the protein level in urine
- B. Have the client turn to the left side
- C. Take the temperature
- D. Monitor the urine output
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In cases of preeclampsia with increasing blood pressure, the priority action for the nurse is to have the client turn to the left side. This position helps improve blood flow to the placenta and fetus, reducing the risk of complications. Checking the protein level in urine (Choice A) is important for assessing preeclampsia but not the immediate priority when blood pressure is increasing. Taking the temperature (Choice C) is not directly related to addressing increased blood pressure in preeclampsia. Monitoring urine output (Choice D) is essential but not the first action to take when blood pressure is rising.
A nurse is assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility. Which client is at highest risk for the development of decubitus ulcers?
- A. A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest
- B. An obese client who uses a wheelchair
- C. A client who had 3 episodes of incontinent diarrhea
- D. An 80-year-old ambulatory diabetic client
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A malnourished client on bed rest is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to a combination of factors such as poor nutritional status and immobility. Malnourished individuals have compromised skin integrity, making them more susceptible to pressure ulcers. Being on bed rest further exacerbates this risk as constant pressure on bony prominences can lead to tissue damage. Although the other choices may also be at risk for developing decubitus ulcers, the malnourished client on bed rest presents the highest risk due to the combination of malnutrition and immobility.
A client with pneumococcal pneumonia had been started on antibiotics 16 hours ago. During the nurse's initial evening rounds, the nurse notices a foul smell in the room. The client makes all of these statements during their conversation. Which statement would alert the nurse to a complication?
- A. I have a sharp pain in my chest when I take a breath.
- B. I have been coughing up foul-tasting, brown, thick sputum.
- C. I have been sweating all day.
- D. I feel hot off and on.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Coughing up foul-tasting, brown, thick sputum suggests a possible abscess or secondary infection, requiring attention. Choice A may indicate pleurisy, but the focus should be on the sputum. Choice C may be non-specific and could be related to the infection or fever. Choice D is non-specific and may be expected during an infection.
What nursing assessment of a paralyzed client would indicate the probable presence of a fecal impaction?
- A. Presence of blood in stools
- B. Oozing liquid stool
- C. Continuous rumbling flatulence
- D. Absence of bowel movements
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Oozing liquid stool.' In a paralyzed client, oozing liquid stool is a common sign of fecal impaction. This occurrence requires prompt intervention to prevent complications. Choice A, 'Presence of blood in stools,' is more indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding rather than fecal impaction. Choice C, 'Continuous rumbling flatulence,' is associated with gas movement in the intestines and not specifically linked to fecal impaction. Choice D, 'Absence of bowel movements,' could be a sign of constipation but does not directly point towards fecal impaction.